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Q12. What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. Drops the frame
B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
In this case, it will send out an ARP request for MAC address of the destination IP (assuming it doesn't already have it in its table) and then address it to the destination's MAC address.
Q13. Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
All IP address in IP ranges between: 10.1.160.1 and 10.1.175.254 are valid as shown below
Address: 10.1.160.0 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000
Netmask: 255.255.240.0 = 20 11111111.11111111.1111 0000.00000000
Wildcard: 0.0.15.255 00000000.00000000.0000 1111.11111111
Which implies that:
Network: 10.1.160.0/20 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000000
HostMin: 10.1.160.1 00001010.00000001.1010 0000.00000001
HostMax: 10.1.175.254 00001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111110
Broadcast: 10.1.175.255 00001010.00000001.1010 1111.11111111
Q14. What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 130
F. 170
Answer: C
Explanation:
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
If the administrative distance is 255, the router does not believe the source of that route and does not install the route in the routing table.
Q15. An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Answer: C
Explanation:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes how SwitchA will handle the frame just received?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out of port Fa0/3 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out of all the ports except Fa0/3.
Answer: D
Q17. Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA numbers
Q18. Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)
A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets
B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops
C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets
D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations
E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops
F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
This is the basic function of the router to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the info to layer 2 for further hopping.
Q19. Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Answer: D
Explanation:
Only network address contains this information. To transmit the packets the sender uses network address and datalink address. But the layer 2 address represents just the address of the next hop device on the way to the sender. It is changed on each hop. Network address remains the same.
Q20. Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)
A. router#show version
B. router#show ip interface
C. router#show protocols
D. router#show controllers
E. router#show running-config
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The outputs of u201cshow protocolsu201d and u201cshow ip interfaceu201d are shown below:
Global values:Internet Protocol routing is enabledSerial0/0 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 10.1.1.1/30Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 209.65.200.225/30Serial0/2 is up, line protocol is downSerial0/3 is up, line protocol is downNVI0 is up, line protocol is upInterface is unnumbered. Using address of NVI0 (0.0.0.0)Loopback0 is up, line protocol is upInternet address is 10.1.10.1/32Loopback1 is up, line protocol is upInternet address is 10.1.2.1/27Loopback6 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 10.1.1.1/30Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255Address determined by non-volatile memoryMTU is 1500 bytesHelper address is not setDirected broadcast forwarding is disabledMulticast reserved groups joined: 224.0.0.5Outgoing access list is not setInbound access list is not setProxy ARP is enabledLocal Proxy ARP is disabledSecurity level is defaultSplit horizon is disabledICMP redirects are always sentICMP unreachables are always sentICMP mask replies are never sentIP fast switching is enabledIP fast switching on the same interface is enabledIP Flow switching is disabledIP CEF switching is disabledIP Feature Fast switching turbo vectorIP multicast fast switching is enabledIP multicast distributed fast switching is disabledIP route- cache flags are FastRouter Discovery is disabledIP output packet accounting is disabledIP access violation accounting is disabledTCP/IP header compression is disabledRTP/IP header compression is disabledPolicy routing is disabledNetwork address translation is enabled, interface in domain insideBGP Policy Mapping is disabledWCCP Redirect outbound is disabledWCCP Redirect inbound is disabledWCCP Redirect exclude is disabled
Q21. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Answer: B
Explanation:
You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward packets with source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the workstation attached to that port is assured the full bandwidth of the port.
If a port is configured as a secure port and the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached, when the MAC address of a station attempting to access the port is different from any of the identified secure MAC addresses, a security violation occurs. Also, if a station with a secure MAC address configured or learned on one secure port attempts to access another secure port, a violation is flagged.
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