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Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 100-105 Free Practice Questions

Q1. - (Topic 7) 

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true? 

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default 

B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default 

C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN. 

D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons 

Answer:

Q2. - (Topic 3) 

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? 

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly. 

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher. 

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher. 

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. 

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. 

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In OSPF, the hello and dead intervals must match and here we can see the hello interval is set to 5 on R1 and 10 on R2. The dead interval is also set to 20 on R1 but it is 40 on R2. 

Q3. - (Topic 5) 

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1? 

A. 192.168.8.15 

B. 192.168.8.31 

C. 192.168.8.63 

D. 192.168.8.127 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The IP address assigned to FA0/1 is 192.168.8.9/29, making 192.168.8.15 the broadcast address. 

Q4. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated? 

A. broadcast domains 

B. repeater domains 

C. Ethernet collisions 

D. signal amplification 

E. Ethernet broadcasts 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links. 

Q5. - (Topic 2) 

Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) 

A. a bridge 

B. a router 

C. a hub 

D. a Layer 3 switch 

E. an access point 

Answer: B,D 

Explanation: 

Routers and layer 3 switches will not propagate broadcast traffic beyond the local segment, so the use of these devices is the best method for eliminating broadcast storms. 

Q6. - (Topic 3) 

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? 

Router(config)# router ospf 1 

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0 

A. The process id is configured improperly. 

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly. 

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly. 

D. The network number is configured improperly. 

E. The AS is configured improperly. 

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0.” 

Q7. - (Topic 2) 

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions? 

A. Source IP address 

B. Destination IP address 

C. Source and destination IP address 

D. Source MAC address 

E. Destination MAC address 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Switches analyze the destination MAC to make its forwarding decision since it is a layer 2 device. Routers use the destination IP address to make forwarding decisions. 

Q8. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown? 

A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable 

B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable 

C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable 

D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable 

E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally 

speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, 

switch-switch, router-router, etc). 

Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. 

Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco 

devices. 

Q9. - (Topic 1) 

Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 

A. Internet layer 

B. transport layer 

C. application layer 

D. network access layer 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD's goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models. 

Q10. - (Topic 1) 

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) 

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. 

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. 

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. 

D. CDP is a network layer protocol. 

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. 

F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected. 

Answer: B,C,E 

Explanation: 

CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network. 

Q11. - (Topic 3) 

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface? 

A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64 

B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 

C. ipv6 autoconfig 

D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64 

Answer:

Explanation: 

An example of configuring IPv6 on an interface is shown below: Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Router(config-if)# ipv6 address 3000::2222:1/64 

Q12. - (Topic 7) 

Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT? 

A. when the network must route UDP traffic 

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts 

C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts 

D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access 

Answer:

Explanation: NAT operation is typically transparent to both the internal and external hosts. Typically the internal host is aware of the true IP address and TCP or UDP port of the external host. Typically the NAT device may function as the default gateway for the internal host. However the external host is only aware of the public IP address for the NAT device and the particular port being used to communicate on behalf of a specific internal host. 

NAT and TCP/UDP 

"Pure NAT", operating on IP alone, may or may not correctly parse protocols that are totally concerned with IP information, such as ICMP, depending on whether the payload is interpreted by a host on the "inside" or "outside" of translation. As soon as the protocol stack is traversed, even with such basic protocols as TCP and UDP, the protocols will break unless NAT takes action beyond the network layer. IP packets have a checksum in each packet header, which provides error detection only for the header. IP datagrams may become fragmented and it is necessary for a NAT to reassemble these fragments to allow correct recalculation of higher-level checksums and correct tracking of which packets belong to which connection. The major transport layer protocols, TCP and UDP, have a checksum that covers all the data they carry, as well as the TCP/UDP header, plus a "pseudo-header" that contains the source and destination IP addresses of the packet carrying the TCP/UDP header. For an originating NAT to pass TCP or UDP successfully, it must recompute the TCP/UDP header checksum based on the translated IP addresses, not the original ones, and put that checksum into the TCP/UDP header of the first packet of the fragmented set of packets. The receiving NAT must recompute the IP checksum on every packet it passes to the destination host, and also recognize and recompute the TCP/UDP header using the retranslated addresses and pseudo-header. This is not a completely solved problem. One solution is for the receiving NAT to reassemble the entire segment and then recompute a checksum calculated across all packets. The originating host may perform Maximum transmission unit (MTU) path discovery to determine the packet size that can be transmitted without fragmentation, and then set the don't fragment (DF) bit in the appropriate packet header field. Of course, this is only a one-way solution, because the responding host can send packets of any size, which may be fragmented before reaching the NAT. 

Q13. - (Topic 7) 

What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 

A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface. 

B. An IPv4 address must be configured. 

C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface. 

D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode. 

Answer:

Explanation: To use IPv6 on your router, you must, at a minimum, enable the protocol and assign IPv6 addresses to your interfaces. 

Q14. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. 

Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame? 

A. Drop the frame 

B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2 

C. Return the frame to Host B 

D. Send an ARP request for Host C 

E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B 

F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C 

Answer:

Q15. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point? 

A. abcd.1123.0045 

B. 192.168.7.17 

C. aabb.5555.2222 

D. 192.168.1.1 

E. abcd.2246.0035 

Answer:

Explanation: 

For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto. 

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