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Q1. Examine the commands executed in the following sequence:
Which statement is true about the above commands?
A. The commands execute successfully.
B. Command 6 produces an error because of circular role grant.
C. Command 5 produces an error because a role cannot be granted to another role.
D. Command 3 produces an error because the MGRROLE role already contains system privileges. The table created by HR remains and HR still has the CREATE TABLE system privilege.
E. The table created by HR remains and HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege to other users.
Answer: B
Q2. Your database is configured in shared server mode. However, your senior DBA asks you to modify the value of the PRIVATE_SGA limit in the profile of the users.
What could be the reason for this?
A. To limit the User Global Area (UGA) memory allocated to a session from the SGA
B. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the dispatcher queue of a session in SGA
C. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the request pool in System Global Area (SGA)
D. To control the amount of memory allocated in SGA for the local variables for each shared server process
Answer: A
Q3. You have a large amount of historical data in a flat file. Some analysts in your organization need to query this data in the file. The file is too large to load the data in it into your current database.
Which is the most effective method to access this data in your database?
A. Use the database link.
B. Use the SQL*Loader utility.
C. Use the Oracle Data Pump utility.
D. Create an external table and leave the data in the flat file.
Answer: D
Q4. Which two statements are true about checkpointing? (Choose two.)
A. The checkpoint frequency decreases with the smaller redo log file size.
B. It ensures that all committed data is written to the data files during normal shutdown.
C. The frequent full checkpoint in a database can cause the overall degradation of the database performance.
D. It prompts the Checkpoint (CKPT) process to write data to the data files and redo information to the online redo log files.
Answer: BC
Q5. See the Exhibit:
Identify the component marked with a question mark:
A. Checkpoint (CKPT)
B. Process Monitor (PMON)
C. Archiver Processes (ARcn)
D. Recoverer Process (RECO)
E. Memory Manager Process (MMAN)
Answer: A
Q6. Which three descriptions are correct about the effects of the TRUNCATE command on a table?
(Choose three.)
A. The corresponding indexes for the table are also truncated.
B. Delete triggers on the table are fired during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.
C. The child table is truncated when the TRUNCATE command is applied on the parent table.
D. The highwater mark (HWM) is set to point to the first usable data block in the table segment.
E. No undo or very little undo data is generated during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.
Answer: ADE
Q7. You created a profile APP_USER and assigned it to the users. After a month, you decide to drop the profile. Some user sessions are currently connected to the database instance and are using the APP_USER profile.
This command is used to drop the profile:
SQL> DROP PROFILE app_user;
Which statement describes the result?
A. The command produces an error.
B. The profile is dropped and current user sessions use the DEFAULT profile immediately.
C. The profile is dropped and only the subsequent user sessions use the DEFAULT profile.
D. The profile is dropped, the sessions are terminated, and the subsequent user sessions use the DEFAULT profile.
Answer: A
Q8. Which two statements are true regarding listeners? (Choose two.)
A. Listeners use only the TCP/IP protocol.
B. Multiple listener processes can run simultaneously on a host.
C. Multiple database instances can be registered with a single listener.
D. The listener-related errors can be traced only at the administrative level.
E. Only one database instance can be registered with a single listener at any time.
Answer: BC
Q9. You execute this command to drop the ITEM table, which has the primary key referred in the ORDERS table:
SQL> DROP TABLE scott.item CASCADE CONSTRAINTS PURGE;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the command? (Choose two.)
A. No flashback is possible to bring back the ITEM table
B. The ORDERS table is dropped along with the ITEM table
C. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are disabled
D. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are removed
E. The table definition of the ITEM table and associated indexes are placed in the recycle bin
Answer: AD
Q10. You are working on a new Oracle Database 11g server, where only the software is installed and no database is created. You plan to create a database on this server using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
Some of the requirements set for your database creation task are:
1. Configure the database to operate in shared server mode.
2. Disable automatic maintenance tasks such as optimizer statistics collection.
3. Configure a naming method to help the remote user connect to the database instance.
4. Use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing the database files.
5. Configure daily database backup to flash recovery area.
6. Configure Enterprise Manager Database Control to manage the database.
Which of these requirements can be met while creating the database?
A. 4 and 6
B. 2, 3, 4, and 6
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C
Q11. Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). You executed a
command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32M SCOPE=BOTH;
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds only if Automatic Memory Management is not enabled.
B. The command succeeds, but you need to restart the database for changes to take effect.
C. The command returns an error because the size of the redo log buffer cannot be changed dynamically.
D. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the System Global Area (SGA).
Answer: C
Q12. You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. The database is open, and you plan to perform Recovery Manager (RMAN) backups.
Which three statements are true about these backups? (Choose three.)
A. The backups would be consistent.
B. The backups would be inconsistent.
C. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
E. The backups need to be restored and the database has to be recovered in case of a media failure.
Answer: BCE
Q13. Automatic Shared Memory Management is disabled for your database instance. You realize that there are cases of SQL statements performing poorly because of repeated parsing activity, resulting in degradation of performance.
What would be your next step to improve performance?
A. Run the SQL Access Advisor
B. Run the memory Advisor for the SGA
C. Run the memory Advisor for the PGA
D. Run the memory advisor for the shared pool
E. Run the memory advisor for the buffer cache
Answer: D
Q14. Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B. It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C. It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D. It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB
Q15. Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump
B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used indedendently of the DATA Pump clients
C. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege
D. Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Release 9.x
E. EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands
Answer: AB