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Q1. - (Topic 4)
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Subinterfaces are used for point to point frame relay connections, emulating virtual point to point leased lines. Each subinterface requires a unique IP address/subnet. Remember, you cannot assign multiple interfaces in a router that belong to the same IP subnet.
Topic 5, Infrastructure Services
190. - (Topic 5)
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
Q2. - (Topic 8)
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
A. bus
B. star
C. mesh
D. ring
Answer: B
Q3. - (Topic 7)
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three
other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A show running-config command on R3 and R4 shows that R4 is incorrectly configured for area 2:
Q4. - (Topic 3)
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA
is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.
Q5. - (Topic 6)
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN).
+ A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group.
+ You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN.
+ When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two.
+ If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses.
+ The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1
/configuration/guide/swtrafc.html)
Q6. - (Topic 8)
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Answer: A,B
Q7. - (Topic 8)
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/8021q/17056-741-4.html
Q8. - (Topic 8)
Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1?
Use only show commands to troubleshoot because usage of the debug command is restricted on the Branch3 and R1 routers.
A. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
B. A PPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
C. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3.
D. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch3 router.
Answer: A
Q9. - (Topic 4)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame- relay map command shown?
A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address.
When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no static address mapping is required.
Q10. - (Topic 5)
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to
hosts? (Choose two.)
A. network or subnetwork IP address
B. broadcast address on the network
C. IP address leased to the LAN
D. IP address used by the interfaces
E. manually assigned address to the clients
F. designated IP address to the DHCP server
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Network or subnetwork IP address (for example 11.0.0.0/8 or 13.1.0.0/16) and broadcast address (for example 23.2.1.255/24) should never be assignable to hosts. When try to assign these addresses to hosts, you will receive an error message saying that they can’t be assignable.
Q11. - (Topic 8)
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?
A. IBGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. RIP
Answer: D
Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/15986-admin-distance.html
Default Distance Value TableThis table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface 0
Static route 1
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route 5
External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) 20
Internal EIGRP 90
IGRP 100 OSPF 110
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) 115
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 120
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) 140
On Demand Routing (ODR) 160
External EIGRP 170
Internal BGP 200
Unknown* 255
Q12. - (Topic 3)
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Example 3-1 displays OSPF with a process ID of 1 and places all interfaces configured with an IP address in area 0. The network command network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 dictates that you do not care (255.255.255.255) what the IP address is, but if an IP address is enabled on any interface, place it in area 0.
Example 3-1 Configuring OSPF in a Single Area
router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=26919&seqNum=3
Q13. DRAG DROP - (Topic 4)
Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used.)
Answer:
Q14. - (Topic 5)
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/26
B. 10.188.31.0/25
C. 10.188.31.0/28
D. 10.188.31.0/27
E. 10.188.31.0/29
Answer: D
Explanation:
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s
-> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts-per-subnet) so /27 is the best choice.
Q15. - (Topic 5)
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networking: unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.
✑ A unicast address identifies a single network interface. The Internet Protocol
delivers packets sent to a unicast address to that specific interface.
✑ An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces, usually belonging to different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to just one of the member interfaces, typically the nearest host, according to the routing protocol’s definition of distance. Anycast addresses cannot be identified easily, they have the same format as unicast addresses, and differ only by their presence in the network at multiple points. Almost any unicast address can be employed as an anycast address.
✑ A multicast address is also used by multiple hosts, which acquire the multicast address destination by participating in the multicast distribution protocol among the network routers. A packet that is sent to a multicast address is delivered to all interfaces that have joined the corresponding multicast group.