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Q1. - (Topic 6)
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C. SW1#show running-config
D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running- config” or “show port-security interface” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security interface” command is shown below:
Q2. - (Topic 5)
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. informational
B. emergency
C. warning
D. critical
E. debug
F. error
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:
Level Keyword Description 0
emergencies System is unusable 1
alerts
Immediate action is needed 2
critical
Critical conditions exist 3
errors
Error conditions exist 4
warnings
Warning conditions exist 5
notification
Normal, but significant, conditions exist 6
informational Informational messages 7
debugging Debugging messages
If you specify a level with the “logging trap level” command, that level and all the higher levels will be logged. For example, by using the “logging trap 3 command, all the logging of emergencies, alerts, critical, and errors, will be logged.
Q3. - (Topic 8)
On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?
A. a router
B. a Layer 2 switch
C. a hub
Answer: C
Explanation: Collision domainA collision domain is, as the name implies, a part of a
network where packet collisions can occur. A collision occurs when two devices send a packet at the same time on the shared network segment. The packets collide and both devices must send the packets again, which reduces network efficiency. Collisions are often in a hub environment, because each port on a hub is in the same collision domain. By contrast, each port on a bridge, a switch or a router is in a separate collision domain.
Q4. - (Topic 8)
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Answer: A
Q5. - (Topic 8)
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?
A. it discards the packet.
B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. it routes the packet to the default route.
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.
Answer: A
Q6. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Answer: E
Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks—those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.
Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.
Q7. - (Topic 5)
The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 30
D. 32
E. 14
F. 16
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since there is one class C network that means 256 total IP addresses. Since we need 7 LAN blocks and we cannot use the first one (subnet 0) we take 256/8=32 hosts. However, since we need to reserve the network and broadcast addresses for each of these subnets, only 30 total IP addresses are usable.
Q8. - (Topic 7)
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?
A. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.
B. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25.
C. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0 are configured with a non-default OSPF hello
interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25.
D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Looking at the configuration of R1, we see that R1 is configured with a hello interval of 25 on interface Ethernet 0/1 while R2 is left with the default of 10 (not configured).
Q9. - (Topic 5)
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
A. anycast
B. broadcast
C. multicast
D. podcast
E. allcast
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networking: unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.
✑ A unicast address identifies a single network interface. The Internet Protocol
delivers packets sent to a unicast address to that specific interface.
✑ An anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces, usually belonging to different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to just one of the member interfaces, typically the nearest host, according to the routing protocol’s definition of distance. Anycast addresses cannot be identified easily, they have the same format as unicast addresses, and differ only by their presence in the network at multiple points. Almost any unicast address can be employed as an anycast address.
✑ A multicast address is also used by multiple hosts, which acquire the multicast address destination by participating in the multicast distribution protocol among the network routers. A packet that is sent to a multicast address is delivered to all interfaces that have joined the corresponding multicast group.
Q10. - (Topic 3)
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Answer: A
Explanation:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108 / Bandwidth
Q11. - (Topic 5)
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), the address block fe80::/10 has been reserved for link-local unicast addressing. The actual link local addresses are assigned with the prefix fe80::/64. They may be assigned by automatic (stateless) or stateful (e.g. manual) mechanisms.
Q12. - (Topic 5)
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Answer: D
Explanation:
Standard ACL’s only examine the source IP address/mask to determine if a match is made. Extended ACL’s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.
Q13. - (Topic 5)
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Subnetting is used to break the network into smaller more efficient subnets to prevent excessive rates of Ethernet packet collision in a large network. Such subnets can be arranged hierarchically, with the organization's network address space (see also Autonomous System) partitioned into a tree-like structure. Routers are used to manage traffic and constitute borders between subnets.
A routing prefix is the sequence of leading bits of an IP address that precede the portion of the address used as host identifier. In IPv4 networks, the routing prefix is often expressed as a "subnet mask", which is a bit mask covering the number of bits used in the prefix. An IPv4 subnet mask is frequently expressed in quad-dotted decimal representation, e.g., 255.255.255.0 is the subnet mask for the 192.168.1.0 network with a 24-bit routing prefix (192.168.1.0/24).
Q14. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
The use of static routes will provide the necessary information for connectivity while producing no routing traffic overhead.
Q15. - (Topic 7)
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The “show ip ospf interface command on R3 and R5 shows that the hello and dead intervals do not match. They are 50 and 200 on R3 and 10 and 40 on R5.