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Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) Certification Exam

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Cisco 300-207 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which three statements about threat ratings are true? (Choose three.) 

A. A threat rating is equivalent to a risk rating that has been lowered by an alert rating. 

B. The largest threat rating from all actioned events is added to the risk rating. 

C. The smallest threat rating from all actioned events is subtracted from the risk rating. 

D. The alert rating for deny-attacker-inline is 45. 

E. Unmitigated events do not cause a threat rating modification. 

F. The threat rating for deny-attacker-inline is 50. 

Answer: A,D,E 

Q2. Which command verifies that the correct CWS license key information was entered on the Cisco ASA? 

A. sh run scansafe server 

B. sh run scansafe 

C. sh run server 

D. sh run server scansafe 

Answer:

Q3. Which Cisco technology provides spam filtering and email protection? 

A. IPS 

B. ESA 

C. WSA 

D. CX 

Answer:

Q4. Which port is used for CLI Secure shell access? 

A. Port 23 

B. Port 25 

C. Port 22 

D. Port 443 

Answer:

Q5. Which Cisco technology combats viruses and malware with virus outbreak filters that are downloaded from Cisco SenderBase? 

A. ASA 

B. WSA 

C. Secure mobile access 

D. IronPort ESA 

E. SBA 

Answer:

Q6. What is the CLI command to create a new Message Filter in a Cisco Email Security Appliance? 

A. filterconfig 

B. filters new 

C. messagefilters 

D. policyconfig-- inbound or outbound-- filters 

Answer:

Q7. Which two conditions must you configure in an event action rule to match all IPv4 addresses in the victim range and filter on the complete subsignature range? (Choose two.) 

A. Disable event action override. 

B. Leave the victim address range unspecified. 

C. Set the subsignature ID-range to the default. 

D. Set the deny action percentage to 100. 

E. Set the deny action percentage to 0. 

Answer: B,C 

Q8. Joe was asked to secure access to the Cisco Web Security Appliance to prevent unauthorized access. Which four steps should Joe implement to accomplish this goal? (Choose four.) 

A. Implement IP access lists to limit access to the management IP address in the Cisco Web Security Appliance GUI. 

B. Add the Cisco Web Security Appliance IP address to the local access list. 

C. Enable HTTPS access via the GUI/CLI with redirection from HTTP. 

D. Replace the Cisco self-signed certificate with a publicly signed certificate. 

E. Put the Cisco WSA Management interface on a private management VLAN. 

F. Change the netmask on the Cisco WSA Management interface to a 32-bit mask. 

G. Create an MX record for the Cisco Web Security Appliance in DNS. 

Answer: A,C,D,E 

Q9. Which Cisco ESA predefined sender group uses parameter-matching to reject senders? 

A. BLACKLIST 

B. WHITELIST 

C. SUSPECTLIST 

D. UNKNOWNLIST 

Answer:

Q10. Which two options are characteristics of router-based IPS? (Choose two.) 

A. It supports custom signatures 

B. It supports virtual sensors. 

C. It supports multiple VRFs. 

D. It uses configurable anomaly detection. 

E. Signature definition files have been deprecated. 

Answer: C,E 

Q11. What are the two policy types that can use a web reputation profile to perform reputation-based processing? (Choose two.) 

A. profile policies 

B. encryption policies 

C. decryption policies 

D. access policies 

Answer: C,D 

Q12. What is the default CX Management 0/0 IP address on a Cisco ASA 5512-X appliance? 

A. 192.168.1.1 

B. 192.168.1.2 

C. 192.168.1.3 

D. 192.168.1.4 

E. 192.168.1.5 

F. 192.168.8.8 

Answer:

Q13. Which configuration option causes an ASA with IPS module to drop traffic matching IPS signatures and to block all traffic if the module fails? 

A. Inline Mode, Permit Traffic 

B. Inline Mode, Close Traffic 

C. Promiscuous Mode, Permit Traffic 

D. Promiscuous Mode, Close Traffic 

Answer:

Q14. A Cisco Email Security Appliance uses which message filter to drop all executable attachments entering and leaving the Cisco Email Security Appliance? 

A. drop-exE. if (attachment-filename == "\\.exe$") OR (attachment-filetype == "exe") { drop(); } 

B. drop-exE. if (recv-listener == "InboundMail" ) AND ( (attachment-filename == "\\.exe$") OR (attachment-filetype == "exe")) { drop(); } 

C. drop-exe! if (attachment-filename == "\\.exe$") OR (attachment-filetype == "exe") { drop(); } 

D. drop-exe! if (recv-listener == "InboundMail" ) AND ( (attachment-filename == "\\.exe$") OR (attachment-filetype == "exe")) { drop(); } 

Answer:

Q15. Refer to the exhibit. 

The system administrator of mydomain.com received complaints that some messages that were sent from sender user@somedomain.com were delayed. Message tracking data on the sender shows that an email sample that was received was clean and properly delivered. What is the likely cause of the intermittent delays? 

A. The remote MTA has a.SenderBase Reputation Score of -1.0. 

B. The remote MTA is sending emails from RFC 1918 IP addresses. 

C. The remote MTA has activated the SUSPECTLIST sender group. 

D. The remote MTA has activated the default inbound mail policy. 

Answer:

Q16. Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server? 

A. sensor# configure terminal 

sensor(config)# service sensor 

sensor(config-hos)# network-settings 

sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500 

B. sensor# configure terminal 

sensor(config)# service host 

sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp 

sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500 

C. sensor# configure terminal 

sensor(config)# service host 

sensor(config-hos)# network-settings 

sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500 

D. sensor# configure terminal 

sensor(config)# service network 

sensor(config-hos)# network-settings 

sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500 

Answer:

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