Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Q1. Which of the following is true regarding the effect of EIGRP queries on the network design?
A. EIGRP queries will be the most significant issue with respect to stability and convergence
B. EIGRP queries are not a consideration as long as EIGRP has a feasible successor with a next hop AD that is greater than the FD of the current successor route
C. EIGRP queries will only increase the convergence time when there are no EIGRP stubs designed in the network
Answer: A
Q2. Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A
Q3. Which two services are provided at the aggregation layer in a data center design? (Choose two.)
A. service module integration
B. default gateway redundancy
C. high-speed packet switching backplane
D. network interface card teaming
E. Layer 3 domain definitions
Answer: A,B
Q4. Which three statements about Network Attached Storage are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Data is accessed using NFS or CIFS.
B. Data is accessed at the block level.
C. NAS is referred to as captive storage.
D. Storage devices can be shared between servers.
E. A NAS implementation is not as fast as a DAS implementation.
Answer: A,D,E
Q5. Which two technologies provide web and URL filtering and mitigate zero-day malware? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco CWS
B. Cisco WSA
C. Cisco GETVPN
D. Cisco ESA
E. NAT/PAT
Answer: A,B
Q6. Source traffic is sent to a VIP on an SLB device, which in turn is routed to the destination server. Return traffic is policy-based routed back to the SLB.
Which SLB design has been implemented?
A. router mode
B. inline bridge mode
C. one-armed mode
D. two-armed mode
Answer: D
Q7. OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
Answer: C,D
Q8. What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device?
A. denies the client network resource access
B. repairs the effected devices
C. generates a Syslog message
D. permits the client but limits to guest access
Answer: B
Q9. Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when EIGRP is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Summarize data center subnets.
B. Advertise a default route into the data center core from the aggregation layer.
C. Tune the EIGRP timers to enable EIGRP to achieve quicker convergence.
D. Adjust the default bandwidth value to ensure proper bandwidth on all links.
Answer: A,B
Q10. Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?
A. VRF
B. Cisco virtual router
C. instanced virtual router
D. IS-IS
Answer: A
Q11. To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus?
A. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link
B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link
C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link
D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link
E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO
Answer: D
Q12. Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Answer: A,D
Q13. When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be considered in the network design?
A. RX-queue deferred
B. TX-queue deferred
C. RX-queue saturation
D. TX-queue saturation
E. RX-queue starvation
F. TX-queue starvation
Answer: F
Q14. Addressing QoS design in the Enterprise Campus network for IP Telephony applications means what?
A. It is critical to identify aggregation and rate transition points in the network, where preferred traffic and congestion QoS policies should be enforced
B. Suspect traffic should be dropped closest to the source, to minimize wasting network resources
C. An Edge traffic classification scheme should be mapped to the downstream queue configuration
D. Applications and Traffic flows should be classified, marked and policed within the Enterprise Edge of the Enterprise Campus network
Answer: A
Q15. An organization is designing the IP allocation of a new site. It currently has 12 separate IP
segments. Each segment must be /24, accommodate 25% of growth, and be easily summarized.
Which summarized IP block can be subnetted to meet these requirements?
A. /18
B. /19
C. /20
D. /21
Answer: C