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Q1. Which router type injects external LSAs into the OSPF database using either other routing protocols or static routes?
A. backbone router
B. ABR
C. internal router
D. designated router
E. ASBR
Answer: E
Q2. Which statement about IPS and IDS solutions is true?
A. IDS and IPS read traffic only in inline mode.
B. IDS and IPS read traffic only in promiscuous mode.
C. An IDS reads traffic in inline mode, and an IPS reads traffic in promiscuous mode.
D. An IDS reads traffic in promiscuous mode, and an IPS reads traffic in inline mode.
Answer: D
Q3. Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)
A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C. Use manual split horizon
D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas
Answer: A,E
Q4. Refer to the exhibit.
The Cisco Nexus 1000V in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network; which of the following 1000V characteristics can the designer take advantage of?
A. Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches
B. If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP
C. Allows transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs
D. Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced
security, administrative boundaries, and flexibility of deployment
Answer: B
Q5. Which unique characteristics of the Data Center Aggregation layer must be considered by an Enterprise Campus designer?
A. Layer 3 routing between the Access and Aggregation layers facilitates the ability to span VLANs across multiple access switches, which is a requirement for many server virtualization and clustering technologies.
B. "East-west" server-to-server traffic can travel between aggregation modules by way of the core, but backup and replication traffic typically remains within an aggregation module.
C. Load balancing, firewall services, and other network services are commonly integrated by the use of service modules that are inserted in the aggregation switches.
D. Virtualization tools allow a cost effective approach for redundancy in the network design by using two or four VDCs from the same physical switch.
Answer: C
Q6. Which option is a recommended firewall topology?
A. using two firewalls with stateful failover switched mode
B. using one firewall with NAT enabled in transparent mode
C. using two firewalls in active/active mode
D. using one firewall with stateful failover enabled in routed mode
Answer: C
Q7. Which protocol is required for end-to-end signaling in an IntServ QoS architecture?
A. RSVP
B. DSCP
C. ToS
D. LLQ
E. DiffServ
Answer: A
Q8. Which IPv6 transition model should be utilized when two or more independent transition mechanisms are required?
A. tunneling
B. dual stack
C. service block
D. hybrid
E. manual
Answer: D
Q9. Given the addresses 10.10.16.0/24 and 10.10.23.0/24, which option is the best summary?
A. 10.10.0.0/16
B. 10.10.8.0/23
C. 10.10.16.0/23
D. 10.10.16.0/21
Answer: D
Q10. A network engineer must perform posture assessments on Cisco ASA remote access VPN clients and control their network access based on the results. What mode is the Cisco best practice NAC deployment design for this situation?
A. Layer 2 in-band real IP gateway mode
B. Layer 2 out-of-band real IP gateway mode
C. Layer 3 in-band virtual gateway mode
D. Layer 3 out-of-band virtual gateway mode
Answer: C
Q11. A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Answer: A,D
Q12. Which option prevents the dropping of asymmetrically routed packets in active/active failover paired firewalls?
A. Nothing can be done to prevent this from happening.
B. Configure different policies on both firewalls.
C. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to the same asymmetric routing group.
D. Assign similar interfaces on each firewall to a different asymmetric routing group.
Answer: C
Q13. NBAR is deployed on the network as part of network optimization. Which technology is critical to recognize new applications on the network?
A. PDLM
B. ACLs
C. code upgrade
D. additional licenses
Answer: A
Q14. What WAN feature can prioritize real-time, IP-based applications when circuits may be saturated?
A. FRTS
B. LLQ
C. CBWFQ
D. WFQ
Answer: B
Q15. A designer should have which three technologies in the network before configuring MPLS Layer 3 VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. MPLS
B. LDP
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. VSS
E. vPC
F. VRRP
Answer: A,B,C