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Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures Certification Exam

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November 21, 2024Last update

Cisco 300-320 Free Practice Questions

Q1. What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area? 

A. 5 

B. 30 

C. 60 

D. 99 

Answer:

Q2. Refer to the exhibit. 

The network engineer wants to ensure that receiver A does not receive traffic from the video conference. 

For multicast traffic, where must the filtering be placed to fulfill that requirement? 

A. R1 

B. Video Conference 

C. A 

D. S1 

E. R2 

Answer:

Q3. Which VPN technology supports dynamic creation of spoke-to-spoke VPN tunnels to provide a scalable design? 

A. IPsec 

B. GRE over IPsec 

C. DMVPN 

D. GRE 

Answer:

Q4. A network engineer is designing a network that must incorporate seamless failover when a link failure occurs between the core and distribution layer. What two technologies will allow this? (Choose two.) 

A. ECMP 

B. RSTP 

C. MEC 

D. GLBP 

E. HSRP 

Answer: A,C 

Q5. A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient use of which technology? 

A. Layer 3 switching in the core 

B. Network Admission Control (NAC) 

C. IP telephony (voice and video) services 

D. ACLs 

Answer:

Q6. What two features are inherent advantages of MPLS VPN services? (Choose two.) 

A. service providers can provide additional services 

B. virtual private networks segment traffic and ensure privacy 

C. easier to troubleshoot than Layer 2 WAN technologies 

D. faster data transfer speeds at lower costs 

E. functions without Cisco Express Forwarding 

Answer: A,B 

Q7. To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus? 

A. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link 

B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link 

C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link 

D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link 

E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO 

Answer:

Q8. In a collapsed core design, which three benefits are provided by a second-generation Cisco MDS director? (Choose three.) 

A. a higher fan-out ratio 

B. fully redundant switches 

C. 100 percent port efficiency 

D. all ISLs contained within a single chassis 

E. higher latency and throughput than a core-edge design switch 

Answer: B,C,D 

Q9. A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure..Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose? 

A. ISSU 

B. VSS 

C. vPC 

D. MEC 

Answer:

Q10. Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.) 

A. dual supervisor modules 

B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects 

C. line modules with DFCs 

D. redundant power supplies 

E. VSS interlink cables 

Answer: A,D 

Q11. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two) 

A. Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers B. Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without disruption to users or loss of services 

C. The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere management 

D. Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management 

E. New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network 

Answer: B,D 

Q12. Which two modes does LACP support? (Choose two.) 

A. on 

B. passive 

C. associated 

D. link 

Answer: A,B 

Q13. What is the purpose of an OTV edge device? 

A. connect to other data centers 

B. connect to the access layer 

C. connect to the end users 

D. connect to mobile devices 

Answer:

Q14. Which action can be taken on a multiaccess segment with OSPF speakers to reduce the performance impact during widespread convergence events? 

A. Separate the network into multiple areas for each new multiaccess segment. 

B. Enable LSA throttling in the core to slow link state advertisement updates during times of network instability. 

C. Ensure that the elected DR or BDR router can support high-volume convergence events. 

D. Verify that fewer than 50 OSPF speakers are on the segment. 

Answer:

Q15. Which two protocol characteristics should be most considered when designing a single unified fabric for the Data Center? (Choose two.) 

A. FCIP or FCoE allow for easier integration by using the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) and Fibre Channel framing 

B. iSCSI uses a special EtherType and an additional header containing additional control information 

C. FCIP and iSCSI has higher overhead than FCoE owing to TCP/IP 

D. FCoE was initially developed to be used as a switch-to-switch protocol, while FCIP is primarily meant to be used as an access layer protocol to connect hosts and storage to a Fibre Channel SAN 

E. FCoE requires gateway functionality to integrate into an existing Fibre Channel network 

Answer: A,C 

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