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Q1. Which two Device Pool configuration settings will override the device-level settings when a device is roaming within or outside a device mobility group? (Choose two.)
A. Adjunct CSS
B. Device Mobility CSS
C. Network Locale
D. Called Party Transformation CSS
E. AAR CSS
F. Device Mobility Group
Answer: CF
Q2. Which message-handling behavior describes how Cisco Unity Connection Single Inbox works for Outlook users who do not have ViewMail installed?
A. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails without a WAV file attachment.
B. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as voice messages.
C. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails with a WAV file attachment.
D. Cisco Unity Connection adds a Voice Outbox folder to the Outlook mailbox.
E. Replies to Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are sent to Exchange as well as the Cisco Unity Connection mailbox for the recipient.
Answer: C
Q3. Which statement about application inspection of SAF network services on an adaptive security appliance is true?
A. The adaptive security appliance can inspect and learn the ephemeral port numbers that are used by H.225 and H.245 on SAF-enabled H.323 trunks.
B. An explicit ACL must be configured on the adaptive security appliance for SAF-enabled SIP trunks.
C. An explicit ACL must be configured on the adaptive security appliance for SAF-enabled H.323 trunks to account for ephemeral port numbers that are used by H.225 and H.245.
D. The adaptive security appliance can inspect and learn the ephemeral port numbers that are used by H.225 on SAF-enabled H.323 trunks, but H.245 ports must be explicitly defined.
E. The adaptive security appliance provides full application inspection for SAF network services.
Answer: C
Q4. Router A and router B are Cisco IOS routers with hardware CFB resources that are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. Which Media Resource Group and Media Resource Group List configuration should be implemented if an administrator wants to make sure that all provisioned DSPs on router A are consumed before router B's DSP is used?
A. Router A's CFB and router B's CFB should each be configured in its own MRG. Both MRGs should then be grouped into the same MRGL, but the MRG that contains router A's CFB should be listed in higher order than the MRG that contains router B's CFB. Finally, associate the MRGL to all conference resource consumers.
B. Router A's CFB and router B's CFB should each be configured in its own MRG. Both MRGs should then be further separated into different MRGLs. Finally, associate the MRGL that contains router A's CFB in higher order than router B's CFB to all conference resource consumers.
C. Router A's CFB and router B's CFB should both be configured in the same MRG with router A's CFB listed higher than that of router B. Then associate the MRG with an MRGL and apply it to all conference resource consumers.
D. Router A's CFB and router B's CFB should both be configured in the same MRG. Make sure router A's CFB is listed in a higher alphabetical order than router B's CFB. Then associate the MRG with an MRGL and apply it to all conference resource consumers.
E. Router A's CFB and router B's CFB should both be configured in the same MRG. Use Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters to assign a higher priority to router A's CFB. Then associate the MRG with an MRGL and apply it to all conference resource consumers.
Answer: A
Q5. In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones?
A. idle
B. seized
C. alerting
D. ringing
E. connected
Answer: A
Q6. Which call processing feature overrides the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone?
A. park reversion for remotely parked calls by a shared line
B. hold reversion
C. remotely placed pickup request by a shared line
D. pickup notification
E. terminating side of a call back
Answer: B
Q7. What is the maximum number of Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber pairs in a megacluster deployment?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 32
Answer: B
Q8. Refer to the exhibit.
How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 11
Answer: C
Q9. Assume 18 bytes for the Layer 2 header and a 10-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for three VoIP calls that use a G.722 codec over an Ethernet network?
A. 331.2 kb/s
B. 347.8 kb/s
C. 261.6 kb/s
D. 274.7 kb/s
E. 238.4 kb/s
Answer: A
Q10. A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally on Cisco Unity Connection.
E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately.
Answer: B
Q11. Which two statements describe the remote supervisory monitoring feature in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. It is supported on Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced and Premium editions.
B. It does not require a Cisco Supervisor Desktop or any data network connectivity.
C. Agents are aware that they are being silently monitored.
D. Calls can be silently monitored from a PSTN phone.
E. It supports G.711 and G.729 codecs.
F. It works with SPAN port monitoring only.
Answer: BD
Q12. Which external database software is required for the Cisco IM and Presence compliance feature?
A. MySQL
B. EnterpriseDB
C. MSSQL
D. SQLite
E. PostgreSQL
Answer: E
Q13. Which SIP request is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to signal DND status changes to a Cisco 9971 IP Phone?
A. OPTIONS
B. NOTIFY
C. INFO
D. REFER
E. UPDATE
Answer: D
Q14. Which statement describes a disadvantage of using the Cisco TFTP service to serve IP phone load files?
A. The Cisco TFTP services can run on only one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server in a cluster.
B. Because TFTP operates on top of UDP, there is a high risk of corrupted load file delivery at the completion of the TFTP process due to undetected data loss in the network.
C. If a response is not received in the timeout period, the TFTP server will not resend the data packet.
D. Packet loss can significantly increase the TFTP session completion time.
E. Because TFTP operates with an adaptive timeout period, the time to complete the file transfer is unpredictable.
Answer: D
Q15. Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)
A. It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B. Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C. It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D. Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E. It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F. The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.
Answer: BD
Q16. According to ITU-T E.164 recommendations, which two fields in the National Significant Number code may be further subdivided? (Choose two.)
A. Country Code
B. National Destination Code
C. Subscriber Number
D. Regional Significant Number
E. Local User Code
F. National Numbering Plan
Answer: BC