P.S. Breathing 400-101 Q&A are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=196EquYfuI9pjbvqGlSZ_sgL0MRdotS6NNew Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 1 - Question 10)Q1. Which Cisco IOS XE component provides separation between the control plane and the data plane?A. Common Management Enabling TechnologyB. Free and Open Source SoftwareC. POSIXD. Forwarding and Feature ManagerView AnswerAnswer: DQ2. If running an OSPF process without the…
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P.S. Simulation 400-101 pdf are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1aa23iCS9y8wbMWn2hGy0qQPa-osDGBq3New Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 3 - Question 12)Question No: 3Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (choose three.A. metricB. authentication typeC. link stateD. IP subnetE. externaI route tagF. subnet maskView AnswerAnswer: A,D,FQuestion No: 4Which IPv4 feature prevents multicast joins on a per-port…
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P.S. Pinpoint 400-101 practice exam are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=196EquYfuI9pjbvqGlSZ_sgL0MRdotS6NNew Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 3 - Question 12)New Questions 3Which three configuration settings must match for switchs to be in the same MST region?(choose three.A. VLAN namesB. Revision numberC. Region nameD. Domain nameE. PasswordF. VLAN-to-instance assignmentView AnswerAnswer: B,C,FNew Questions 4Which tunneling method can transmit IPv6…
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P.S. Approved 400-101 secret are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1aa23iCS9y8wbMWn2hGy0qQPa-osDGBq3New Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 12 - Question 21)New Questions 12Which two statements are true about an EPL? (Choose two.)A. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of NNlsB. It allows for service multiplexing.C. It has a high degree of transparency.D. The EPL service is…
P.S. Realistic 400-101 testing material are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1kvAKtsr7R9AZcDXoopP_LEfidHf6bCYGNew Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 9 - Question 18)Question No: 9What are the two BFD modes? "(Choose two)A. activeB. asynchronousC. passiveD. establishedE. demandF. synchronousView AnswerAnswer: B,EQuestion No: 10Refer to exhibit.If a DHCP server has generated the given debug output, which two statements about the network environment…
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P.S. Certified 400-101 lab are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1IW-FBjIGklMU6wt1CVbJF66pb-8K-ocaNew Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 8 - Question 17)Q1. Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(choose three.A. SolicitB. RenewC. AdvertiseD. DHCP DiscoverE. DHCPAckF. DHCP OfferView AnswerAnswer: A,B,CQ2. Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?A. It…
P.S. Certified 400-101 paper are available on Google Drive, GET MORE: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1cF02oX7GSasuEXS-dBzgjdZ6VV4eo-MdNew Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps Collection (Question 9 - Question 18)New Questions 9Which IS-IS process is responsible for flooding local link information to adjacent routers ?A. decisionB. receiveC. forwardD. updateView AnswerAnswer: DNew Questions 10Which two statements about the max-age time in IS-IS are true ?(Choose two)A. The IS-IS max-age…
Q1. Which three address family types does EIGRP support? (Choose three.) A. IPv4 unicast B. IPv4 multicast C. IPv6 unicast D. IPv6 multicast E. IPv4 anycast F. IPv6 anycast View AnswerAnswer: A,B,C Q2. Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding? A. FlexVPN B. DMVPN C. GETVPN D. Cisco Easy VPN View AnswerAnswer: B Q3. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? A. The multicast address 0100.0cdd.dddd…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this capture are true? (Choose two.) A. It is set to run for five minutes. B. It continues to capture data after the buffer is full. C. It is set to run for a period…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. This is the output of the show ip ospf command. B. This is the output of the show ip protocols command. C. This router is an ABR. D. This router is an ASBR. E. Authentication is not configured for the area. View AnswerAnswer: A,E Explanation: The following is sample output from the show ip ospf command…
Q1. Which three statements about the default behaviour of eBGP sessions are true? (Choose three.) A. eBGP sessions between sub-ASs in different confederations transmit the next hop unchanged. B. The next hop in an eBGP peering is the IP address of the neighbor that announced the route. C. When a route reflector reflects a route to a client, it transmits the next hop…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this COS-DSCP mapping is true? A. The expedited forwarding DSCP is mapped to COS 3. B. COS 16 is mapped to DSCP 2. C. The default COS is mapped to DSCP 32. D. This mapping is the default COS-DSCP mapping on Cisco switches. View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: Here we see that COS 3 is mapped to DSCP 46, which is…
Q1. Which three protocols can use enhanced object tracking? (Choose three.) A. HSRP B. Proxy-ARP C. VRRP D. GLBP E. NTP F. DHCP View AnswerAnswer: A,C,D Explanation: The Enhanced Object Tracking feature separates the tracking mechanism from HSRP and creates a separate standalone tracking process that can be used by other processes and HSRP. This feature allows tracking of other objects in addition to the interface line-protocol state. A…
Q1. Which statement about OTV is true? A. The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled. B. OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode. C. The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured. D. The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible. View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: OTV has the following…
Q1. Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.) A. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally. B. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state. C. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed. D. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface. E. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state. F. By default,…
Q1. Which two statements about the passive-interface command are true? (Choose two.) A. A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface. B. In OSPF, configuring passive-interface at the interface level suppresses hello packets for the interface and all sub interfaces. C. An EIGRP router can form neighbor relationship on the passive interface,…
Q1. Which flag in a configuration BPDU instructs all switches to shorten their bridge table aging process from the default 300 seconds to the current forward delay value? A. topology change bit B. topology change acknowledgment bit C. priority bit D. max-age bit View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: The Root Bridge continues to set the Topology Change flag (TCN bit) in all Configuration BPDUs that it sends out…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose three.) A. The virtual circuit identifier is 1611 and the virtual circuit is down. B. The local label for the circuit is 4006. C. The targeted LDP session to the remote peer is up. D. The local label for the circuit is 1611. E. The virtual circuit identifier is 4006 and…
Q1. Which statement is true about trunking? A. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUs on nonnative VLANs when using a dot1q trunk. B. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk, management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in that VLAN. C. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL. D. DTP is a point-to-point…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop each STP port role on the left to the matching statement on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.) A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header. B. The command configures an SPI. C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV. D.…
Q1. What is a cause for unicast flooding? A. Unicast flooding occurs when multicast traffic arrives on a Layer 2 switch that has directly connected multicast receivers. B. When PIM snooping is not enabled, unicast flooding occurs on the switch that interconnects the PIM-enabled routers. C. A man-in-the-middle attack can cause the ARP cache of an end host to have the wrong MAC…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is implemented on the network, which additional configuration is needed to allow traffic from host 10.4.1.15/24 to host 10.1.2.20/24? A. A virtual link between router 2 and router 4 B. A virtual link between router 3 and router 4 C. A virtual link between router 2 and router 3 D. The current design allows traffic between the two…
Q1. Which three improvements does Cisco IOS XE Software offer over traditional IOS Software? (Choose three.) A. It can run applications as separate processes on multicore CPUs. B. It supports drivers for data plane ASICs outside of the operating system. C. It allows platform-dependent code to be compiled into a single image. D. It supports multiple IOS instances simultaneously, sharing resources and internal infrastructure…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two.) A. connected B. external C. summary D. static E. redistributed View AnswerAnswer: A,C Q2. Which three roles does a key server perform when used with GETVPN? (Choose three.) A. It authenticates group members. B. It manages security policies. C. It creates group keys. D. It distributes multicast replication policies. E. It distributes multicast replication…
Q1. Which three statements about GET VPN are true? (Choose three.) A. It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication. B. It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter. C. It can secure IP multicast, unicast, and broadcast group traffic. D. It uses a centralized key server for membership control. E. It enables the router to configure tunnels. F.…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two pieces of information in this Wireshark capture indicate that you are viewing EIGRP traffic? (Choose two.) A. the header length B. the protocol number C. the destination address D. the Class Selector E. the source address F. the header checksum View AnswerAnswer: B,C Explanation: EIGRP uses protocol number 88, which shows as EIGRP in the capture. Also, we in the capture that the…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.) A. Spoke devices will be dynamically added to the NHRP mappings. B. The next-hop server address must be configured to 172.168.1.1 on all spokes. C. The next-hop server address must be configured to 192.168.1.1 on all spokes. D. R1 will create a static mapping for each spoke. View AnswerAnswer: A,C Explanation: NHRP is…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which technology can be used on the switch to enable host A to receive multicast packets for 239.2.2.2 but prevent host B from receiving them? A. IGMP filtering B. MLD snooping C. IGMP snooping D. MLD filtering View AnswerAnswer: C Explanation: IGMP snooping is the process of listening to Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) network traffic. The feature allows a network switch to…
Q1. What are the minimal configuration steps that are required to configure EIGRP HMAC-SHA2 authentication? A. classic router mode, interface XX, authentication mode hmac-sha-256 B. named router mode, address-family statement, authentication mode hmac-sha-256 C. named router mode, address-family statement, af-interface default, authentication mode hmac-sha-256 D. named router mode, address-family statement, authentication mode hmac-sha-256 View AnswerAnswer: C Explanation: The example below shows how to…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from CE1 to CE2 is traveling through the core instead of through R1. All the PE routers have a similar configuration, and BGP peering and extended-community meshing are configured correctly. Which configuration change routes the traffic through R1? A) B) C) D) A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D View AnswerAnswer: A Q2. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the argument of the…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring the S1 switch for the switchport connecting to the client computer. Which option describes the effect of the command mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 16 24 32 40 46 56? A. Voice traffic is excluded from the default priority queue. B. Voice packets are given a class selector of 5. C. Video conferencing is marked…
Q1. Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true? A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID. B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects the route into the AS. C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator…
Q1. What is the destination MAC address of a BPDU frame? A. 01-80-C2-00-00-00 B. 01-00-5E-00-00-00 C. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF D. 01-80-C6-00-00-01 View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: The root-bridge election process begins by having every switch in the domain believe it is the root and claiming it throughout the network by means of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDU). BPDUs are Layer 2 frames multicast to a well-known MAC address in case…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Which two options are contained in the MSG part of a syslog message? (Choose two.) A. TAG field B. CONTENT field C. three-digit priority value D. IP address of the sending device E. TLS port number View AnswerAnswer: A,B Q3. Which two statements about Layer 2 Frame…
Q1. Which two values comprise the VPN ID for an MPLS VPN? (Choose two.) A. an OUI B. a VPN index C. a route distinguisher D. a 16-bit AS number E. a 32-bit IP address View AnswerAnswer: A,B Explanation: Each MPLS VPN ID defined by RFC 2685 consists of the following elements: . An Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI), a three-octet hex number: The IEEE Registration Authority assigns OUIs to…
Q1. Which two tunneling techniques determine the IPv4 destination address on a per-packet basis? (Choose two.) A. 6to4 tunneling B. ISATAP tunneling C. manual tunneling D. GRE tunneling View AnswerAnswer: A,B Explanation: Tunnel Configuration Parameters by Tunneling Type Tunneling Type Tunnel Configuration Parameter Tunnel Mode Tunnel Source Tunnel Destination Interface Prefix or Address Manual ipv6ip An IPv4 address, or a reference to an interface on which IPv4 is configured. An IPv4 address. An IPv6 address. GRE/IPv4 gre ip An IPv4…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0? A. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address. B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address. C. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address. D. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address. View AnswerAnswer: D Explanation: Most IPv6 networks use autoconfiguration, which requires the…
Q1. Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.) A. mismatch of subnet masks B. mismatch of network types C. mismatch of authentication types D. mismatch of instance IDs E. mismatch of area types View AnswerAnswer: D,E Explanation: An OSPFv3…
Q1. Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the routing table? A) B) C) D) A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D View AnswerAnswer: B Explanation: Advertise maps are used for conditional routing to advertise specified prefixes if something which is specified in exist map exists. In our question we need to advertise 172.16.0.0/24 if 10.10.10.10/32 exists in the routing…
Q1. Which two statements about the default router settings for SSH connections are true? (Choose two.) A. The default timeout value for the SSH negotiation phase is 120 seconds. B. Data is exchanged in clear text by default unless AAA authentication is enabled on the console. C. The default number of authentication retries is 3. D. SSH is enabled by default when you configure…
Q1. Assume that the following MAC addresses are used for the bridge ID MAC address by four different switches in a network. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge? A. SwitchA uses MAC 1000.AA-AA-AA-AA-AA-AA. B. SwitchB uses MAC 2000.BB-BB-BB-BB-BB-BB. C. SwitchC uses MAC 3000.CC-CC-CC-CC-CC-CC. D. SwitchD uses MAC 4000.DD-DD-DD-DD-DD-DD. View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: The switch with the highest switch priority (the lowest numerical priority…
Q1. Which three features does GETVPN support to improve deployment and scalability? (Choose three.) A. configuration of multiple key servers to work cooperatively B. allowing traffic to be discarded until a group member registers successfully C. local exceptions in the traffic classification ACL D. GDOI protocol configuration between group members and the key server E. redundant IPsec tunnels between group members and the key server F.…
Q1. Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder? A. DNS B. HTTP C. ICMP Echo D. UDP Echo View AnswerAnswer: D Explanation: Figure 1. UDP Echo Operation Response time (round-trip time) is computed by measuring the time taken between sending a UDP echo request message from Device B to the destination device--Device A--and receiving a UDP echo reply from Device…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the IP MTU of tunnel 0? A. 1500 B. 1524 C. 1476 D. 1452 E. 1548 View AnswerAnswer: C Explanation: In the case of the GRE tunnel interface, the IP maximum transmission unit (MTU) is 24 bytes less than the IP MTU of the real outgoing interface. For an Ethernet outgoing interface that means the IP MTU on the tunnel interface…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop each DHCP term on the left to the corresponding definition on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. DRAG DROP View AnswerAnswer: Q3. Which ICMP message type is used to assist path MTU discovery? A. destination unreachable B. redirect message C. source quench D. time exceeded View AnswerAnswer: A Q4. Refer to the exhibit. You are bringing a new MPLS router online and have configured only…
Q1. Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal? A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector B. Resource Event Detector C. OIR Event Detector D. CLI Event Detector View AnswerAnswer: C Q2. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of load balancing is done on this router? A. per-packet load balancing B. per-flow load balancing C. per-label load balancing D. star round-robin load balancing View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: Here we can see that for the…
Q1. Which three types of traffic are protected when you implement IPsec within an IPv6-in-IPv4 tunnel? (Choose three.) A. IPv6 link-local traffic B. IPv6 multicast traffic C. IPv6 unicast traffic D. IPv4 tunnel control traffic E. IPv4 broadcast traffic F. IPv6 broadcast traffic View AnswerAnswer: A,B,C Q2. Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header? A. It identifies the signaling protocol. B. It identifies…
Q1. Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.) A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header. B. The command configures an SPI. C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV. D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm. E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and Drop Cisco PFR adjacency types. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2, and R3 have full network connectivity to each other, but R2 prefers the path through R3 to reach network 172.17.1.0/24. Which two actions can you take so that R2 prefers the path through R1 to reach 172.17.1.0/24? (Choose two.) A. Set the reference bandwidth to…
Q1. Which three features are common to OSPF and IS-IS? (Choose three.) A. They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes a shortest path tree. B. They both use DR and BDR in the broadcast network. C. They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies. D. They both use NSSA and stub type areas to scale the…
Q1. Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two.) A. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths. B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor. C. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default. D. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing. E. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across…
Q1. Which three capabilities are provided by MLD snooping? (Choose three.) A. dynamic port learning B. IPv6 multicast router discovery C. user-configured ports age out automatically D. a 5-minute aging timer E. flooding control packets to the egress VLAN F. a 60-second aging timer View AnswerAnswer: A,B,D Explanation: Like IGMP snooping, MLD snooping performs multicast router discovery, with these characteristics: . Ports configured by a user never age out. . Dynamic…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running EIGRP and the network has converged. R3 and R4 are configured as EIGRP Stub. If the link between R1 and R3 goes down, which statement is true? A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2. B. R2 does not have a route to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table. C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active…
Q1. Which two statements about the function of the stub feature in EIGRP are true? (Choose two.) A. It stops the stub router from sending queries to peers. B. It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router. C. It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes to the hub routers. D. It stops the hub router from…
Q1. Which circumstance can cause packet loss due to a microburst? A. slow convergence B. a blocked spanning-tree port C. process switching D. insufficient buffers View AnswerAnswer: D Explanation: Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration reduces CPU utilization on R2 while still advertising the connected routes of R2 to R1? A. Configure eigrp stub connected on R2. B. Configure eigrp stub receive-only on R1. C. Configure eigrp stub static on R2. D. Configure eigrp stub summary on R1. View AnswerAnswer: A Q2. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct…
Q1. Which two statements about BGP loop prevention are true? (Choose two.) A. Advertisements from PE routers with per-neighbor SOO configured include a Site of Origin value that is equal to the configured value of the BGP peering. B. If the configured Site of Origin value of a BGP peering is equal to the Site of Origin value on a route it…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop each SNMP security model and level on the left to the corresponding mode of authentication on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? A. The Cisco PfR state is UP; however, the external interface Et0/1 of border router 10.1.1.1 has exceeded the maximum available bandwidth threshold. B. The Cisco PfR state is UP;…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated. The numbers shown are STP link metrics. After STP converges, you discover that traffic from switch SWG toward switch SWD takes a less optimal path. What can you do to optimize the STP tree in this switched network? A. Change the priority of switch…
Q1. Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum? A. It is used for congestion control. B. It cannot be all zeros. C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation. D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header. View AnswerAnswer: D Explanation: The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one's complement of the…
Q1. Which statement about the spanning-tree portfast feature on the switch is true? A. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port goes through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states. B. If an interface is enabled for portfast receives BDPU, the port does not go through the spanning-tree listening, learning, and forwarding states. C. If an interface is enabled…
Q1. Which two statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Choose two.) A. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP requests. B. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client. C. It specifies a hardware address for the client. D. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP…
Q1. Which technology is not necessary to set up a basic MPLS domain? A. IP addressing B. an IGP C. LDP or TDP D. CEF E. a VRF View AnswerAnswer: E Explanation: The simplest form of VRF implementation is VRF Lite. In this implementation, each router within the network participates in the virtual routing environment in a peer-based fashion. While simple to deploy and appropriate for small to…
Q1. Which three types of traffic are allowed by IEEE 802.1X access control prior to getting authenticated? (Choose three.) A. EAPOL B. VTP C. STP D. ARP E. CDP F. HTTP View AnswerAnswer: A,C,E Explanation: Until the client is authenticated, IEEE 802.1x access control allows only Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPOL), Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), and Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) traffic through the port to which the client…
Q1. Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? (Choose two.) A. Stuck-in-active conditions are solved faster. B. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state. C. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network. D. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down. View AnswerAnswer: A,C Q2. When you enable the MPLS Multi-VRF feature, which…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. How many EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: EIGRPv6 on R2 was shut down so there is no EIGRP routes on the routing table of R2. If we turn on EIGRPv6 on R2 (with “no shutdown” command) then we would see the prefix of the loopback interface…
Q1. Which two statements are true about AAA? (Choose two.) A. AAA can use RADIUS, TACACS+, or Windows AD to authenticate users. B. If RADIUS is the only method configured in AAA, and the server becomes unreachable, the user will be able to log in to the router using a local username and password. C. If the local keyword is not included and the…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag each statement about EtherChannel protocols on the left to the matching EtherChannel protocol on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. What is the new designation for the MPLS EXP (experimental) bits? A. QoS bits B. traffic class bits C. flow bits D. precedence bits View AnswerAnswer: B Explanation: To avoid misunderstanding about how this field may be used, it has become increasingly necessary to rename this…
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which command can you enter to resolve this error message on a peer router? A. username password B. ppp chap C. aaa authorization exec if-authenticated D. aaa authorization network if-authenticated View AnswerAnswer: A Q2. Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.) A. It forwards Ethernet frames. B. It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops. C. It…
Q1. DRAG DROP Drag and drop each GET VPN feature on the left to the corresponding function it performs on the right. View AnswerAnswer: Q2. Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two.) A. The next-hop routers must be the same. B. Route reflectors must be enabled. C. All attributes must have the same values. D. MPLS must…
Q1. Which statement describes Cisco PfR link groups? A. Link groups enable Cisco PfR Fast Reroute when NetFlow is enabled on the external interfaces of the border routers. B. Link groups define a strict or loose hop-by-hop path pReference: C. Link groups are required only when Cisco PfR is configured to load-balance all traffic. D. Link groups are enabled automatically when Cisco PfR is…
Q1. Which neighbor-discovery message type is used to verify connectivity to a neighbor when the link-layer address of the neighbor is known? A. neighbor solicitation B. neighbor advertisement C. router advertisement D. router solicitation View AnswerAnswer: A Explanation: IPv6 Neighbor Solicitation Message A value of 135 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header identifies a neighbor solicitation message. Neighbor solicitation messages are sent on the…
Q1. Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.) A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization B. improved shared services support C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking E. increased network performance and throughput F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations View AnswerAnswer: A,B,C Q2. Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a…
Q1. What are two reasons to define static peers in EIGRP? (Choose two.) A. Security requirements do not allow dynamic learning of neighbors. B. The link between peers requires multicast packets. C. Back-level peers require static definition for successful connection. D. The link between peers requires unicast packets. View AnswerAnswer: A,D Explanation: There are two ways we can create EIGRP neighbor relationship: + Use “network ” command. This…