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Q1. Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. Stuck-in-active conditions are solved faster.
B. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state.
C. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network.
D. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down.
Answer: A,C
Q2. When you enable the MPLS Multi-VRF feature, which two supported routing protocols can be used to exchange routing information between PE routers and CE routers? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. IS-IS
Answer: A,B
Q3. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about this COS-DSCP mapping is true?
A. The expedited forwarding DSCP is mapped to COS 3.
B. COS 16 is mapped to DSCP 2.
C. The default COS is mapped to DSCP 32.
D. This mapping is the default COS-DSCP mapping on Cisco switches.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here we see that COS 3 is mapped to DSCP 46, which is the Expedited forwarding class: The Expedited Forwarding (EF) model is used to provide resources to latency (delay) sensitive real-time, interactive traffic. The EF model uses one marking -- DSCP 46.
Q4. Which two Cisco IOS XE commands can install a subpackage onto a router? (Choose two.)
A. request platform software package install rp rpSlotNumber file fileURL
B. boot system flash bootflash:filename
C. copy sourceUrl destinationUrl
D. license install file storedLocationUrl
E. issu loadversion rp identifier file diskType imageFilename
F. config-register value
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
. Managing and Configuring a Consolidated Package Using the request platform software package install Command
In the following example, the request platform software package install command is used to upgrade a consolidated package running on RP 0. The force option, which forces the upgrade past any prompt (such as already having the same consolidated package installed), is used in this example.
Router# request platform software package install rp 0 file bootflash:asr1000rp1-adventerprisek9.02.01.00.122-33.XNA.bin force
To upgrade a consolidated package on the Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers using the copy command, copy the consolidated package into the bootflash: directory on the router using the copy command as you would on most other Cisco routers. After making this copy, configure the router to boot using the consolidated package file. In the following example, the consolidated package file is copied onto the bootflash: file system from TFTP. The config-register is then set to boot using boot system commands, and the boot system commands instruct the router to boot using the consolidated package stored in the bootflash: file system. The new configuration is then saved using the copy running-config startup-config command, and the system is then reloaded to complete the process.
Router# dir bootflash:
Directory of bootflash:/
11 drwx 16384 Dec 4 2007 04:32:46 -08:00 lost+found
86401 drwx 4096 Dec 4 2007 06:06:24 -08:00.ssh
14401 drwx 4096 Dec 4 2007 06:06:36 -08:00.rollback_timer
28801 drwx 4096 Mar 18 2008 17:31:17 -07:00.prst_sync
43201 drwx 4096 Dec 4 2007 04:34:45 -08:00.installer
13 -rw- 45977 Apr 9 2008 16:48:46 -07:00 target_support_output.tgz.tgz
928862208 bytes total (712273920 bytes free)
Router# copy tftp bootflash:
Address or name of remote host []? 172.17.16.81
Source filename []? /auto/tftp-users/user/asr1000rp1-adventerprisek9.02.01.00.122-33.XNA.bin
Destination filename [asr1000rp1-adventerprisek9.02.01.00.122-33.XNA.bin]?
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr1000/configuration/guide/chassis/asrswcfg /Package_Management.html#78189
Q5. Which three address family types does EIGRP support? (Choose three.)
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv4 multicast
C. IPv6 unicast
D. IPv6 multicast
E. IPv4 anycast
F. IPv6 anycast
Answer: A,B,C
Q6. Which flag in a configuration BPDU instructs all switches to shorten their bridge table aging process from the default 300 seconds to the current forward delay value?
A. topology change bit
B. topology change acknowledgment bit
C. priority bit
D. max-age bit
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Root Bridge continues to set the Topology Change flag (TCN bit) in all Configuration BPDUs that it sends out for a total of Forward Delay + Max Age seconds (default = 35 (20+15) seconds). This flag instructs all bridges to shorten their MAC address table (Bridge table) aging process from the default value of 300 seconds to the current Forward Delay value of the bridge (default=15 seconds). The TCA flag is set by the upstream bridge to tell the downstream bridges to stop sending TCN BPDUs. The TC flag is set in configuration BPDU by the Root Bridge to shorten the bridge table age-out period from default 300 seconds to Forward Delay seconds.
Q7. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco IOX XE subpackage on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Answer:
Q8. Refer to the exhibit.
At which location will the benefit of this configuration be observed?
A. on Router A and its upstream routers B. on Router A and its downstream routers
C. on Router A only
D. on Router A and all of its ARP neighbors
Answer: B
Explanation:
The following example shows how to configure the router (and downstream routers) to drop all options packets that enter the network: Router(config)# ip options drop
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/sel_drop.html
Q9. Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Modes are:
Mode monitor passive
Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned.
Mode monitor active
Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes.
Mode monitor Fast
This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy.
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Technology_Overview#Mode_monitor_passive
Q10. Which three statements about implementing a NAT application layer gateway in a network are true? (Choose three.)
A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it through the network.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
An application-level gateway (ALG), also known as an application-layer gateway, is an application that translates the IP address information inside the payload of an application packet. An ALG is used to interpret the application-layer protocol and perform firewall and Network Address Translation (NAT) actions. These actions can be one or more of the following depending on your configuration of the firewall and NAT:
. Allow client applications to use dynamic TCP or UDP ports to communicate with the server application.
. Recognize application-specific commands and offer granular security control over them.
. Synchronize multiple streams or sessions of data between two hosts that are exchanging data.
. Translate the network-layer address information that is available in the application payload
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_nat/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/nat-xe-3s-asr1k-book/fw-msrpc-supp.html
Q11. Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is in the routing table?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
Explanation:
Advertise maps are used for conditional routing to advertise specified prefixes if something which is specified in exist map exists. In our question we need to advertise 172.16.0.0/24 if 10.10.10.10/32 exists in the routing table so we have to use commanD. “neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map <prefix-list of 172.16.0.0/24> exist-map <prefix-list of 10.10.10.10/32>”. Therefore B is correct.
Q12. Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two.)
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. Blowfish
D. DES
E. AES
F. SSL
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Note that SNMPv3 does not send passwords in clear-text and uses hash-based authentication with either MD5 or SHA1 functions (HMAC authentication – the packet conted is hashed along with authentication key to produce the authentication string).
Reference: http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/
Q13. An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
Answer: A
Q14. Refer to the exhibit.
Which OSPFv3 routes will be visible in the routing table of R2?
A. 2001:12::1/128
B. 2001:12::1/128, 2001:112::1/128
C. 2001:12::2/128
D. No OSPFv3 routes will be visible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The command “ipv6 unicast-routing” needs to be configured on both routers before any IPv6 routes will be seen.
Q15. Which two options are the two main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two.)
A. Active Discovery Phase
B. IKE Phase
C. Main Mode Phase
D. PPP Session Phase
E. Aggressive Mode Phase
F. Negotiation Phase
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase — In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
PPP Session Phase — In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-pppoe.html