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400-101 Premium Bundle

CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which two statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP requests. 

B. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client. 

C. It specifies a hardware address for the client. 

D. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP requests. 

E. It requires that you specify the hardware protocol. 

Answer: A,B 

Reference: 

client-identifier unique-identifier 

Example: 

Device(dhcp-config)# client-identifier 01b7.0813.8811.66 

Specifies the unique identifier for DHCP clients. 

This command is used for DHCP requests. 

DHCP clients require client identifiers. You can specify the unique identifier for the client in either of the following ways: 

A 7-byte dotted hexadecimal notation. For example, 01b7.0813.8811.66, where 01 represents the Ethernet media type and the remaining bytes represent the MAC address of the DHCP client. 

A 27-byte dotted hexadecimal notation. For example, 7665.6e64.6f72.2d30.3032.342e.3937.6230.2e33.3734.312d.4661.302f.31. The equivalent ASCII string for this hexadecimal value is vendor-0024.97b0.3741-fa0/1, where vendor represents the vendor, 0024.97b0.3741 represents the MAC address of the source interface, and fa0/1 represents the source interface of the DHCP client. 

See the Troubleshooting Tips section for information about how to determine the client identifier of the DHCP client. 

Note 

The identifier specified here is considered for a DHCP client that sends a client identifier in the packet. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/15-mt/dhcp-15-mt-book/config-dhcp-server.html 

Q2. Which two options are signaling protocols that are used in MPLS? (Choose two.) 

A. LDP 

B. RSVP 

C. BFD 

D. LISP 

E. CLNS 

F. CDP 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

* Signaling is the means by which LSRs all along the path know that they are a part of a given LSP. It is a signaling function by which the LSR knows that the internal transit path for the LSP depicted goes from Interface 2 to Interface 4. 

* Label distribution is the means by which an LSR tells an upstream LSR what label value to use for a particular LSP. 

There are four protocols that can perform the label distribution function: 

* Label Distribution Protocol (LDP) 

* Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering Extensions (RSVP-TE) 

* Constraint-Based Routed LDP (CR-LDP) 

* Multiprotocol BGP 

LDP and RSVP-TE are the two most commonly used label distribution protocols 

Reference: http://www.networkworld.com/article/2237487/cisco-subnet/understanding-mpls-label-distribution.html 

Q3. Which Layer 2 tunneling technique eliminates the need for pseudowires? 

A. OTV 

B. L2TPv3 

C. AToM 

D. VPLS 

Answer:

Q4. Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it? 

A. A root port 

B. An alternate port 

C. A blocked port 

D. A designated port 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The root guard feature provides a way to enforce the root bridge placement in the network. The root guard ensures that the port on which root guard is enabled is the designated port. Normally, root bridge ports are all designated ports, unless two or more ports of the root bridge are connected together. If the bridge receives superior STP Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) on a root guard-enabled port, root guard moves this port to a root-inconsistent STP state. This root-inconsistent state is effectively equal to a listening state. No traffic is forwarded across this port. In this way, the root guard enforces the position of the root bridge. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/10588-74.html 

Q5. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement about the topology is true? 

A. It provides a transparent LAN service. 

B. It provides only point-to-multipoint connections between UNIs. 

C. It uses port-based connections at the hub. 

D. It provides point-to-point connections between UNIs. 

Answer:

Q6. Refer to the exhibit. 

If a console port is configured as shown, which response is displayed when you connect to the console port? 

A. a blinking cursor 

B. the message "Authorized users only" 

C. the username prompt 

D. three username name prompts followed by a timeout message 

E. the message "Connection refused" 

Answer:

Q7. Which two options are disadvantages of a commingled dual-tier WAN rate-based Ethernet circuit? (Choose two.) 

A. It requires the maintenance of separate chassis. 

B. It has limited scalability. 

C. It requires additional CPU resources at the subscriber end. 

D. It is more difficult to secure. 

E. It can increase the likelihood of packet drops. 

Answer: A,E 

Q8. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which command is configured on this router? 

A. bgp update-delay 60 

B. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-prefix 200 

C. neighbor 10.100.1.1 maximum-path 2 

D. neighbor 10.100.1.1 ebgp-multihop 2 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The BGP Maximum-Prefix feature allows you to control how many prefixes can be received from a neighbor. By default, this feature allows a router to bring down a peer when the number of received prefixes from that peer exceeds the configured Maximum-Prefix limit. This feature is commonly used for external BGP peers, but can be applied to internal BGP peers also. When the maximum number of prefixes has been received, the BGP sessions closes into the IDLE state. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/25160-bgp-maximum-prefix.html 

Q9. Which two options are EIGRP route authentication encryption modes? (Choose two.) 

A. MD5 

B. HMAC-SHA-256bit 

C. ESP-AES 

D. HMAC-AES 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

Packets exchanged between neighbors must be authenticated to ensure that a device accepts packets only from devices that have the same preshared authentication key. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) authentication is configurable on a per-interface basis; this means that packets exchanged between neighbors connected through an interface are authenticated. EIGRP supports message digest algorithm 5 (MD5) authentication to prevent the introduction of unauthorized information from unapproved sources. MD5 authentication is defined in RFC 1321. EIGRP also supports the Hashed Message Authentication Code-Secure Hash Algorithm-256 (HMAC-SHA-256) authentication method. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_eigrp/configuration/xe-3s/ire-xe-3s-book/ire-sha-256.html 

Q10. DRAG DROP 

Drag and Drop Cisco PFR adjacency types. 

Answer:  

Q11. Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.) 

A. Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports. 

B. PAGP is supported on EVC ports. 

C. Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports. 

D. LACP is supported on EVC ports. 

E. Layer 2 multicast framing is supported. 

F. Bridge domain routing is required. 

Answer: A,B,D 

Explanation: 

EVC support requires the following: 

–The spanning tree mode must be MST. 

–The dot1ad global configuration mode command must be configured. 

These Layer 2 port-based features can run with EVC configured on a port: 

–PAGP 

–LACP 

–UDLD 

–LLDP 

–CDP 

–MSTP 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SY/configuration/guide/sy_swcg/ethernet_virtual_connection.html 

Q12. Refer to the exhibit. 

Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R? 

A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R 

B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R 

C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R 

D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186 a00800afeb7.html 

Q13. Which feature of Cisco IOS XE Software allows for platform-independent code abstraction? 

A. its security 

B. Common Management Enabling Technology 

C. the Linux-based environment 

D. its modularity 

Answer:

Q14. A configuration includes the line ip nbar port-map SSH tcp 22 23 443 8080. Which option describes the effect of this configuration line? 

A. It configures NBAR to search for SSH using ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080. 

B. It configures NBAR to allow SSH connections only on ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080. 

C. It enables NBAR to inspect for SSH connections. 

D. It creates a custom NBAR port-map named SSH and associates TCP ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080 to itself. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The ip nbar-port-map command configures NBAR to search for a protocol or protocol name using a port number other than the well-known port. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/command/reference/fqos_r/qrfcmd10.pd f 

Q15. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement about the R1 configuration is true? 

A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps. 

B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer. 

C. The logging of warning messages is disabled. 

D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

To disable sequence numbers, use the no service sequence-numbers global configuration command. 

This example shows part of a logging display with sequence numbers enableD. 000019: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36) 

In this example we see the absence of sequence numbers on the log messages. 

Not A. In this example there are no time stamps or uptimes shown in the logs. 

Not B. The default buffer size is 4096 bytes. 

Not C. The logging level in this example is informational (level 6), which will display levels 0-6 in the logs. Warnings are level 4.