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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Free Practice Questions

Q1. What are two reasons to define static peers in EIGRP? (Choose two.) 

A. Security requirements do not allow dynamic learning of neighbors. 

B. The link between peers requires multicast packets. 

C. Back-level peers require static definition for successful connection. 

D. The link between peers requires unicast packets. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

There are two ways we can create EIGRP neighbor relationship: 

+ Use “network ” command. This is the more popular way to create EIGRP neighbor relationship. That router will check which interfaces whose IP addresses belong to the and turn EIGRP on that interface. EIGRP messages are sent via multicast packets. 

+ Use “neighbor” commanD. The interface(s) that have this command applied no longer send or receive EIGRP multicast packets. EIGRP messages are sent via unicast. The router only accepts EIGRP packets from peers that are explicitly configured with a neighbor statement. Consequently, any messages coming from routers without a corresponding neighbor statement are discarded. This helps prevent the insertion of unauthorized routing peers -> A and D are correct. 

Q2. Refer to the exhibit. 

All routers are running EIGRP and the network has converged. R3 and R4 are configured as EIGRP Stub. If the link between R1 and R3 goes down, which statement is true? 

A. R1 sends traffic destined to 192.168.0.100 via R2. 

B. R2 does not have a route to 192.168.0.0/24 in the routing table. 

C. The prefix 192.168.0.0/24 becomes stuck-in-active on R4. 

D. R3 does not advertise 192.168.0.0/24 to R4 anymore. 

Answer:

Q3. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which LISP component do routers in the public IP network use to forward traffic between the two networks? 

A. EID 

B. RLOC 

C. map server 

D. map resolver 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) is a network architecture and protocol that implements the use of two namespaces instead of a single IP address: 

. Endpoint identifiers (EIDs)—assigned to end hosts. 

. Routing locators (RLOCs)—assigned to devices (primarily routers) that make up the global routing system. The public networks use the RLOC to forward traffic between networks. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_lisp/configuration/15-mt/irl-15-mt-book/irl-overview.html 

Q4. Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header. 

B. The command configures an SPI. 

C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV. 

D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm. 

E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3 process. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

OSPFv3 requires the use of IPsec to enable authentication. Crypto images are required to use authentication, because only crypto images include the IPsec API needed for use with OSPFv3. In OSPFv3, authentication fields have been removed from OSPFv3 packet headers. When OSPFv3 runs on IPv6, OSPFv3 requires the IPv6 authentication header (AH) or IPv6 ESP header to ensure integrity, authentication, and confidentiality of routing exchanges. IPv6 AH and ESP extension headers can be used to provide authentication and confidentiality to OSPFv3. To use the IPsec AH, you must enable the ipv6 ospf authentication command. To use the IPsec ESP header, you must enable the ipv6 ospf encryption command. The ESP header may be applied alone or in combination with the AH, and when ESP is used, both encryption and authentication are provided. Security services can be provided between a pair of communicating hosts, between a pair of communicating security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. To configure IPsec, you configure a security policy, which is a combination of the security policy index (SPI) and the key (the key is used to create and validate the hash value). IPsec for OSPFv3 can be configured on an interface or on an OSPFv3 area. For higher security, you should configure a different policy on each interface configured with IPsec. If you configure IPsec for an OSPFv3 area, the policy is applied to all of the interfaces in that area, except for the interfaces that have IPsec configured directly. Once IPsec is configured for OSPFv3, IPsec is invisible to you. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15-sy/iro-15-sy-book/ip6-route-ospfv3-auth-ipsec.html 

Q5. Which two statements about IP SLAs are true? (Choose two.) 

A. They are Layer 2 transport independent. 

B. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB. 

C. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip. 

D. Data can be collected with a physical probe. 

E. They are used primarily in the distribution layer. 

Answer: A,E 

Q6. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which action must you take to enable the WAN link to function properly? 

A. Enter a clock rate on the DCE interface. 

B. Enter a clock rate on the DTE interface. 

C. Enter a compression algorithm on both interfaces. 

D. Configure both interfaces for HDLC encapsulation. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When connecting a serial cable to the serial interface of the router, clocking is provided by an external device, such as a CSU/DSU device. A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is a digital-interface device used to connect a router to a digital circuit. The router is the DTE (Data Terminal Equipment) and the external device is the DCE (Data Communications Equipment), where the DCE provides the clocking. However, in some cases we might connect two routers back-to-back using the routers’ serial interfaces (Example. Inside the router labs). Each router is a DTE by default. Since clocking is required to enable the interface, one of the two routers should function as DCE and should provide clocking. This can be done by using the "clock rate" command, from the interface configuration mode. 

Reference: http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/how-to-configure-router-serial-interfaces.php 

Q7. DRAG DROP 

Drag each routing protocol on the left to the matching statement on the right. 

Answer:  

Q8. Which two statements about OSPF are true? (Choose two.) 

A. External type 2 routes are preferred over interarea routes. 

B. Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes. 

C. External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes. 

D. External type 1 routes are preferred over intra-area routes. 

E. External type 2 routes are preferred over external type 1 routes. 

Answer: B,C 

Q9. Which three statements about the differences between Cisco IOS and IOS-XE functionality are true? (Choose three.) 

A. Only IOS-XE Software can host applications outside of the IOS context. 

B. Only the IOS-XE Services Plane has multiple cores. 

C. Only the IOS-XE Data Plane has multiple cores. 

D. Only the IOS-XE Control Plane has multiple cores. 

E. Only IOS-XE module management integrates with packet processing. 

F. Only IOS-XE configuration and control is integrated with the kernel. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Q10. How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing? 

A. 8 

B. 16 

C. 24 

D. 32 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/18285-loadbal-cef.html 

Q11. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop each SNMP security model and level on the left to the corresponding mode of authentication on the right. 

Answer:  

Q12. In an STP domain, which two statements are true for a nonroot switch, when it receives a configuration BPDU from the root bridge with the TC bit set? (Choose two.) 

A. It sets the MAC table aging time to max_age + forward_delay time. 

B. It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time. 

C. It recalculates the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch. 

D. It receives the topology change BPDU on both forwarding and blocking ports. 

Answer: B,D 

Explanation: 

When the TC bit is received, every bridge is then notified and reduces the aging time to forward_delay (15 seconds by default) for a certain period of time (max_age + forward_delay). It is more beneficial to reduce the aging time instead of clearing the table because currently active hosts, that effectively transmit traffic, are not cleared from the table. Once the root is aware that there has been a topology change event in the network, it starts to send out its configuration BPDUs with the topology change (TC) bit set. These BPDUs are relayed by every bridge in the network with this bit set. As a result all bridges become aware of the topology change situation and it can reduce its aging time to forward_delay. Bridges receive topology change BPDUs on both forwarding and blocking ports. An important point to consider here is that a TCN does not start a STP recalculation. This fear comes from the fact that TCNs are often associated with unstable STP environments; TCNs are a consequence of this, not a cause. The TCN only has an impact on the aging time. It does not change the topology nor create a loop. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/12013-17.html#topic1 

Q13. Which statement about the EIGRP RTO is true? 

A. It is six times the SRTT. 

B. It is the time that it normally takes for an update to be received by a peer. 

C. It is the time that it normally takes to receive a reply to a query. 

D. It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The RTO is typically six times the SRTT, the value may vary from a minimum of 200 microseconds (ms) to a maximum of 5 seconds (s). 

Reference: EIGRP for IP: Basic Operation and Configuration, Alvaro Retana, Russ White, Don Slice - 2000 

Q14. Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy? (Choose two.) 

A. event register keyword 

B. body 

C. environment must defines 

D. namespace import 

E. entry status 

F. exit status 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

EEM policies require two parts: the event register keyword and the body. The remaining 

parts of the policy are optional: environment must defines, namespace import, entry status, 

and exit status (Figure 5). 

Figure 5. EEM Policy Parts 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/ios-

embedded-event-manager-eem/config_guide_eem_configuration_for_cisco_integrated_services_router_platforms.htm 

Q15. Which two statements about reverse ARP are true? (Choose two.) 

A. Its servers require static mappings. 

B. It works with AutoInstall to configure new devices. 

C. It provides IP addresses for subnet masks. 

D. It provides IP addresses for default gateways. 

E. It requires less maintenance than DHCP. 

Answer: A,B