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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.) 

A. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally. 

B. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state. 

C. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed. 

D. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface. 

E. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state. 

F. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer. 

Answer: D,E,F 

Explanation: 

Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) authentication issues are one of the most common causes for dialup link failures. This document provides some troubleshooting procedures for PPP authentication issues. 

Prerequisites 

. Enable PPP encapsulation 

. The PPP authentication phase does not begin until the Link Control Protocol (LCP) phase is complete and is in the open state. If debug ppp negotiation does not indicate that LCP is open, troubleshoot this issue before proceeding. 

Note. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer. However, this CHAP username can be changed through the ppp chap hostname command. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/25647-understanding-ppp-chap.html 

Q2. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop each IPv6 neighbor discovery message type on the left to the corresponding description on the right. 

Answer:  

Q3. Refer to the exhibit. 

IPv6 SLAAC clients that are connected to the router are unable to acquire IPv6 addresses. What is the reason for this issue? 

A. Router advertisements are not sent by the router. 

B. Duplicate address detection is disabled but is required on multiaccess networks. 

C. The interface is configured to support DHCPv6 clients only. 

D. The configured interface MTU is too low for IPv6 to be operational. 

Answer:

Q4. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the multiprotocol BGP feature on the left to the corresponding description on the right. 

Answer:  

Q5. Which two statements about the protected ports feature and the private VLAN feature are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The protected ports feature is limited to the local switch. 

B. The protected ports feature can isolate traffic between two "protected" ports on different switches. 

C. The private VLAN feature is limited to the local switch. 

D. The private VLAN feature prevents interhost communication within a VLAN across one or more switches. 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

Protected Ports (PVLAN Edge) In some network environments, there is a requirement for no traffic to be seen or forwarded between host(s) on the same LAN segment, thereby preventing interhost communications. The PVLAN edge feature provisions this isolation by creating a firewall-like barrier, thereby blocking any unicast, broadcast, or multicast traffic among the protected ports on the switch. Note that the significance of the protected port feature is limited to the local switch, and there is no provision in the PVLAN edge feature to isolate traffic between two "protected" ports located on different switches. For this purpose, the PVLAN feature can be used. 

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1181682&seqNum=2 

Q6. A floating static route appears in the routing table of an interface even when the interface is unusable. 

Which action can you take to correct the problem? 

A. Remove the permanent option from the static route. 

B. Correct the administrative distance. 

C. Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table. 

D. Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server. 

Answer:

Q7. Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by the use of the IP SLAs Responder? 

A. DNS 

B. HTTP 

C. ICMP Echo 

D. UDP Echo 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Figure 1. UDP Echo Operation 

Response time (round-trip time) is computed by measuring the time taken between sending a UDP echo request message from Device B to the destination device--Device A--and receiving a UDP echo reply from Device A. UDP echo accuracy is enhanced by using the IP SLAs Responder at Device A, the destination Cisco device. If the destination device is a Cisco device, then IP SLAs sends a UDP datagram to any port number that you specified. Using the IP SLAs Responder is optional for a UDP echo operation when using Cisco devices. The IP SLAs Responder cannot be configured on non-Cisco devices. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt-book/sla_udp_echo.html 

Q8. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements about the R1 configuration are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The IP TTL value is copied to the MPLS field during label imposition. 

B. The structure of the MLPS network is hidden in a traceroute. 

C. The LDP session interval and hold times are configured for directly connected neighbors. 

D. R1 protects the session for 86400 seconds. 

E. All locally assigned labels are discarded. 

Answer: B,D 

Q9. Where is multicast traffic sent, when it is originated from a spoke site in a DMVPN phase 2 cloud? 

A. spoke-spoke 

B. nowhere, because multicast does not work over DMVPN 

C. spoke-spoke and spoke-hub 

D. spoke-hub 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Spokes map multicasts to the static NBMA IP address of the hub, but hub maps multicast packets to the “dynamic” mappings – that is, the hub replicates multicast packets to all spokes registered via NHRP, so multicast traffic is sent to the hub from a spoke instead of to the other spokes directly. 

Q10. Refer to the exhibit. 

When the link between RtrB and RtrC goes down, multicast receivers stop receiving traffic from the source for multicast group 229.1.1.1.Which solution will resolve this? 

A. adding a static mroute on RtrB and RtrF 

B. adding a static unicast route on RtrB and RtrF 

C. creating a GRE tunnel between RtrB and RtrD 

D. enabling PIM sparse mode on both ends of the link between RtrB and RtrF 

Answer:

Explanation: 

For multicast traffic to flow, PIM must be enabled on all routers in the path of the multicast stream. 

Q11. Which action does route poisoning take that serves as a loop-prevention method? 

A. It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices. 

B. It immediately sends routing updates with a metric of 255 to all devices. 

C. It prohibits a router from advertising back onto the interface from which it was learned. 

D. It advertises a route with an unreachable metric back onto the interface from which it was learned. 

E. It poisons the route by tagging it uniquely within the network. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

With route poisoning, when a router detects that one of its connected routes has failed, the router will poison the route by assigning an infinite metric to it and advertising it to neighbors. 

Q12. An IP SLA fails to generate statistics. How can you fix the problem? 

A. Add the verify-data command to the router configuration. 

B. Reload the router configuration. 

C. Remove the ip sla schedule statement from the router configuration and re-enter it. 

D. Add the debug ip sla error command to the router configuration. 

E. Add the debug ip sla trace command to the router configuration. 

Answer:

Q13. Which cache aggregation scheme is supported by NetFlow ToS-based router aggregation? 

A. prefix-port 

B. AS 

C. protocol port 

D. destination prefix 

Answer:

Q14. Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal? 

A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector 

B. Resource Event Detector 

C. OIR Event Detector 

D. CLI Event Detector 

Answer:

Q15. Refer to the exhibit. 

If IS-IS is configured utilizing default metrics, what is the cost for Router 4 to reach the 10.2.2.0/24 network? 

A. 1 

B. 20 

C. 30 

D. 63 

Answer:

Explanation: 

By default, every link is an IS-IS network has a metric of 10.