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CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 400-101 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which three protocols can use enhanced object tracking? (Choose three.) 

A. HSRP 

B. Proxy-ARP 

C. VRRP 

D. GLBP 

E. NTP 

F. DHCP 

Answer: A,C,D 

Explanation: 

The Enhanced Object Tracking feature separates the tracking mechanism from HSRP and creates a separate standalone tracking process that can be used by other processes and HSRP. This feature allows tracking of other objects in addition to the interface line-protocol state. A client process such as HSRP, Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP), or Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP), can register its interest in tracking objects and then be notified when the tracked object changes state. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/15-mt/iap-15-mt-book/iap-eot.html 

Q2. What is the purpose of Route Target Constraint? 

A. to avoid using route reflectors in MPLS VPN networks 

B. to avoid using multiple route distinguishers per VPN in MPLS VPN networks 

C. to be able to implement VPLS with BGP signaling 

D. to avoid sending unnecessary BGP VPNv4 or VPNv6 updates to the PE router 

E. to avoid BGP having to perform route refreshes 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Some service providers have a very large number of routing updates being sent from RRs to PEs, using considerable resources. A PE does not need routing updates for VRFs that are not on the PE; therefore, the PE determines that many routing updates it receives are “unwanted.” The PE can filter out the unwanted updates using Route Target Constraint. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ios_xe/iproute_bgp/configuration/guide/2_xe/irg_x e_book/irg_rt_filter_xe.html. 

Q3. DRAG DROP 

Drag each IPv6 extension header on the left to its corresponding description on the right. 

Answer:  

Q4. DRAG DROP 

Drag each SNMP term on the left to the matching definition on the right. 

Answer:  

Q5. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the LACP elements on the left into the correct priority order in the hot-standby port-selection process on the right. 

Answer:  

Q6. Which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.) 

A. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. 

B. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetfFow. 

C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link. 

D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

. Passive and Active Monitoring 

Passive monitoring is the act of OER gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow. OER, when enabled, automatically enables NetFlow on the managed interfaces on the border routers. By aggregating this information on the border routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the master controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Additionally, attributes like throughput, reachability, loading, packet loss, and latency can be deduced from the collected flows. Active monitoring is the act of generating IP SLA probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. Active probes can either be implicitly generated by OER when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or explicitly configured by the network manager in the OER configuration. 

Reference: http://products.mcisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/Transport_div ersity/Transport_Diversity_PfR.html#wp199209 

Q7. Which three statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose three.) 

A. IS-IS is not encapsulated in IP. 

B. IS-IS is directly encapsulated in the data link layer. 

C. 0XFEFE is used in the Layer 2 header to identify the Layer 3 protocol. 

D. IS-IS uses protocol ID 93. 

E. IS-IS can be used to route the IPX protocol. 

F. IS-IS is an IETF standard. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Explanation: 

IS-IS is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) for routing OSI. IS-IS packets are not encapsulated in CLNS or IP but are encapsulated directly in the data-link layer. The IS-IS protocol family is OSI, and values such as 0xFE and 0xFEFE are used by the data-link protocol to identify the Layer 3 protocol as OSI. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.sh tml 

Q8. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which configuration must you apply to router R2 to enable BFD?

A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

A. Exhibit A 

B. Exhibit B 

C. Exhibit C 

D. Exhibit D 

Answer:

Q9. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop each BGP attribute on the left to the matching description on the right. 

Answer:  

Q10. Which two statements about Metro Ethernet services are true? (Choose two.) 

A. EPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS 

backbone. 

B. EVPL is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone. 

C. EPLAN is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone. 

D. EVPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone. 

E. ELAN is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone. 

F. EVPL is a multipoint service with a root node that is suitable for multicast services. 

Answer: A,B 

Q11. Which statement about the BGP originator ID is true? 

A. The route reflector always sets the originator ID to its own router ID. 

B. The route reflector sets the originator ID to the router ID of the route reflector client that injects the route into the AS. 

C. The route reflector client that injects the route into the AS sets the originator ID to its own router ID. 

D. The originator ID is set to match the cluster ID. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

An RR reflecting the route received from a RR-Client adds: 

. Originator ID- a 4-byte BGP attribute that is created by the RR. This attribute carries the Router ID of the originator of the route in the local AS. If the update comes back to the originator, it ignores the update. 

. Cluster List- A Cluster List is a list of Cluster IDs that an update has traversed. When a route reflector sends a route received from a client to a non-client, it appends the local Cluster ID. If a route reflector receives a route whose Cluster List contains the local Cluster ID, it ignores the update. 

Reference: https://sites.google.com/site/amitsciscozone/home/bgp/bgp-route-reflectors 

Q12. Refer to the exhibit. 

You are configuring the S1 switch for the switchport connecting to the client computer. Which option describes the effect of the command mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 16 24 32 40 46 56? 

A. Voice traffic is excluded from the default priority queue. 

B. Voice packets are given a class selector of 5. 

C. Video conferencing is marked CS3. 

D. Voice packets are processed in the priority queue. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The default CoS to DSCP mappings are shown below: 

Default CoS-to-DSCP Map 

CoS Value 

DSCP Value 

16 

24 

32 

40 

48 

56 

In our example, we see that COS 6 is mapped to DSCP, not the default of DSCP 48 as shown above. DSCP 46 is Expedited Forwarding (EF), which is typically used for voice traffic, and this value has not been included in this class map. 

Q13. A configuration includes the line ip nbar port-map SSH tcp 22 23 443 8080. Which option describes the effect of this configuration line? 

A. It configures NBAR to search for SSH using ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080. 

B. It configures NBAR to allow SSH connections only on ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080. 

C. It enables NBAR to inspect for SSH connections. 

D. It creates a custom NBAR port-map named SSH and associates TCP ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080 to itself. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The ip nbar-port-map command configures NBAR to search for a protocol or protocol name using a port number other than the well-known port. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/command/reference/fqos_r/qrfcmd10.pd f 

Q14. Which two options are contained in the MSG part of a syslog message? (Choose two.) 

A. TAG field 

B. CONTENT field 

C. three-digit priority value 

D. IP address of the sending device 

E. TLS port number 

Answer: A,B 

Q15. What is the destination MAC address of a BPDU frame? 

A. 01-80-C2-00-00-00 

B. 01-00-5E-00-00-00 

C. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF 

D. 01-80-C6-00-00-01 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The root-bridge election process begins by having every switch in the domain believe it is the root and claiming it throughout the network by means of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDU). BPDUs are Layer 2 frames multicast to a well-known MAC address in case of IEEE STP (01-80-C2-00-00-00) or vendor-assigned addresses, in other cases. 

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1016582