Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Q1. Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network?
(Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Answer: A,B,C
Q2. Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a client? (Choose three.)
A. Reject-Challenge
B. Access-Reject
C. Accept-Confirmed
D. Access-Accept
E. Access-Challenge
F. Reject-Access
Answer: B,D,E
Q3. Refer to the exhibit.
For which reason could a BGP-speaking device in autonomous system 65534 be prevented from installing the given route in its BGP table?
A. The AS number of the BGP is specified in the given AS_PATH.
B. The origin of the given route is unknown.
C. BGP is designed only for publicly routed addresses.
D. The AS_PATH for the specified prefix exceeds the maximum number of ASs allowed.
E. BGP does not allow the AS number 65535.
Answer: A
Explanation:
BGP is considered to be a 'Path Vector' routing protocol rather than a distance vector routing protocol since it utilises a list of AS numbers to describe the path that a packet should take. This list is called the AS_PATH. Loops are prevented because if a BGP speaking router sees it's own AS in the AS_PATH of a route it rejects the route.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit.
Router 1 and Router 2 use HSRP to provide first hop redundancy for hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
Which feature can provide additional failover coverage for the PC?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Accounting
D. Enhanced Object Tracking
Answer: D
Explanation:
HSRP has a mechanism for tracking the interface line-protocol state. The enhanced object tracking feature separates the tracking mechanism from HSRP. It creates a separate, standalone tracking process that can be used by processes other than HSRP. This feature allows tracking of other objects in addition to the interface line-protocol state. A client process, such as HSRP, can register an interest in tracking objects and request notification when the tracked object changes state. Several clients can track the same object, and can take different actions when the object changes state. This feature increases the availability and speed of recovery of a router system and decreases outages and outage duration.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/blades/3040/software/release/12-2_44_se/configuration/guide/swhsrp.html#wp1083927
Q5. What is the most common use for route tagging in EIGRP?
A. to determine the route source for management purposes
B. to change the metric of a prefix
C. to filter routes in order to prevent routing loops
D. to modify path selection for certain classes of traffic
Answer: C
Q6. DRAG DROP
Drag each SNMP term on the left to the matching definition on the right.
Answer:
Q7. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B. NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C. There is a potential routing loop.
D. This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this example we see that the source interface and destination interface are the same (Et0/0). Typically this is seen when there is a routing loop for the destination IP address.
Q8. Which two descriptions of the keying mechanisms that are used to distribute the session keys used in routing authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Peer keying creates a unique one-to-one relationship with another peer.
B. Group keying creates a single keying message to multiple peers.
C. Peer keying creates a single keying message to multiple peers.
D. Group keying creates a unique one-to-one relationship with another peer.
E. Group keying creates a full mesh of keying sessions to all devices.
F. Peer keying creates a full mesh of keying sessions to all devices.
Answer: A,B
Q9. Which VPN technology requires the use of an external key server?
A. GETVPN
B. GDOI
C. SSL
D. DMVPN
E. IPsec F. L2TPv3
Answer: A
Explanation:
A GETVPN deployment has primarily three components, Key Server (KS), Group Member (GM), and Group Domain of Interpretation (GDOI) protocol. GMs do encrypt/decrypt the traffic and KS distribute the encryption key to all the group members. The KS decides on one single data encryption key for a given life time. Since all GMs use the same key, any GM can decrypt the traffic encrypted by any other GM. GDOI protocol is used between the GM and KS for group key and group SA management. Minimum one KS is required for a GETVPN deployment.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/group-encrypted-transport-vpn/deployment_guide_c07_554713.html
Q10. A company has just opened two remote branch offices that need to be connected to the corporate network. Which interface configuration output can be applied to the corporate router to allow communication to the remote sites?
A. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel source Serial0/0
tunnel mode gre multipoint
B. interface fa0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.230 255.255.255.224
tunnel mode gre multipoint
C. interface Tunnel0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic
D. interface fa 0/0
bandwidth 1536
ip address 209.165.200.231 255.255.255.224
tunnel source 192.168.161.2
tunnel destination 209.165.201.1
tunnel-mode dynamic
Answer: A
Q11. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the device that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SPT-bit is set.
B. The sparse-mode flag is set.
C. The RP-bit is set.
D. The source-specific host report was received.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
In this example we can see that the s, T, and I flags are set. Here is a list of the flags and their meanings:
show ip mroute Field Descriptions
Field Description
Flags:
Provides information about the entry.
D - Dense
Entry is operating in dense mode.
S - Sparse
Entry is operating in sparse mode.
B - Bidir Group
Indicates that a multicast group is operating in bidirectional mode.
s - SSM Group Indicates that a multicast group is within the SSM range of IP addresses. This flag is reset if the SSM range changes.
C - Connected
A member of the multicast group is present on the directly connected interface.
L - Local
The router itself is a member of the multicast group.
P - Pruned
Route has been pruned. The Cisco IOS software keeps this information so that a downstream member can join the source.
R - RP-bit set
Indicates that the (S, G) entry is pointing toward the RP. This is typically prune state along the shared tree for a particular source.
F - Register flag
Indicates that the software is registering for a multicast source.
T - SPT-bit set
Indicates that packets have been received on the shortest path source tree.
J - Join SPT
For (*, G) entries, indicates that the rate of traffic flowing down the shared tree is exceeding the SPT-Threshold set for the group. (The default SPT-Threshold setting is 0 kbps.) When the J- Join shortest path tree (SPT) flag is set, the next (S, G) packet received down the shared tree triggers an (S, G) join in the direction of the source, thereby causing the router to join the source tree.
For (S, G) entries, indicates that the entry was created because the SPT-Threshold for the group was exceeded. When the J- Join SPT flag is set for (S, G) entries, the router monitors the traffic rate on the source tree and attempts to switch back to the shared tree for this source if the traffic rate on the source tree falls below the SPT-Threshold of the group for more than 1 minute.
M - MSDP created entry
Indicates that a (*, G) entry was learned through a Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) peer. This flag is only applicable for a rendezvous point (RP) running MSDP.
X - Proxy Join Timer Running
Indicates that the proxy join timer is running. This flag is only set for (S, G) entries of an RP or "turnaround" router. A "turnaround" router is located at the intersection of a shared path (*, G) tree and the shortest path from the source to the RP.
A - Advertised via MSDP
Indicates that an (S, G) entry was advertised through an MSDP peer. This flag is only applicable for an RP running MSDP.
U - URD
Indicates that a URD channel subscription report was received for the (S, G) entry.
I - Received Source Specific Host Report
Indicates that an (S, G) entry was created by an (S, G) report. This (S, G) report could have been created by IGMPv3, URD, or IGMP v3lite. This flag is only set on the designated router (DR).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/12s_ssm.html
Q12. You are installing a new device to replace a device that failed. The configuration of the failed device is stored on a networked server, and the new device has an RXBOOT image installed. Under which condition does the streamlined Setup mode fail?
A. The last four bits of the configuration register are not equal to the decimal value 0 or 1.
B. The startup configuration file was deleted.
C. Bit 6 is set in the configuration register.
D. The startup configuration is corrupt.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The lowest four bits of the configuration register (bits 3, 2, 1, and 0) form the boot field. The boot field determines if the router boots manually, from ROM, or from Flash or the network. To change the boot field value and leave all other bits set to their default values, follow these guidelines:
. If you set the configuration register boot field value to 0x0, you must boot the operating system manually with the boot command.
. If you set the configuration register boot field value to 0x1, the router boots using the default ROM software.
. If you set the configuration register boot field to any value from 0x2 to 0xF, the router uses the boot field value to form a default boot filename for booting from a network server. For more information about the configuration register bit settings and default filenames, refer to the appropriate router hardware installation guide.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/command/reference/ffun_r/frf010. html
Q13. Refer to the exhibit.
R1, R2, and R3 have full network connectivity to each other, but R2 prefers the path through R3 to reach network 172.17.1.0/24. Which two actions can you take so that R2 prefers the path through R1 to reach 172.17.1.0/24? (Choose two.)
A. Set the reference bandwidth to 10000 on R1, R2, and R3.
B. Configure the cost on the link between R1 and R3 to be greater than 100 Mbps.
C. Set the reference bandwidth on R2 only.
D. Configure a manual bandwidth statement with a value of 1 Gbps on the link between R1 and R3.
E. Modify the cost on the link between R1 and R2 to be greater than 10 Gbps.
F. Configure a manual bandwidth statement with a value of 100 Mbps on the link between R1 and R2.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
By default, the reference bandwidth used in Cisco routers is 100Mbps, so FastEthernet and above will have a cost of 1, so a gigabit interface and 10GE interface will be equal with a fastethernet. This is not ideal. If we change the reference bandwidth to 100000 then the faster links will be used. Changing the reference bandwidth needs to be done on all routers in the OSPF network. Increasing the cost on the R1-R3 link will also cause the traffic to take the more direct route.
Q14. For which three routing protocols can Cisco PfR provide direct route control? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
E. static routing
F. ODR
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Q. Can you elaborate more on the Parent Route and why it's so important to PfR?
A. Yes. For any route that PfR modifies or controls (BGP, Static, PIRO, EIGRP, PBR), having a Parent prefix in the routing table eliminates the possibility of a routing loop occurring. This is naturally a good thing to prevent in routed networks.
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Performance_Routing_FAQs#Route_Control
Q15. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about this egress queue are true? (Choose two.)
A. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 20 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 400 percent of memory.
B. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory.
C. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 150 percent of memory.
D. The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
E. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
Answer: B,D