Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Q1. Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration reduces CPU utilization on R2 while still advertising the connected routes of R2 to R1?
A. Configure eigrp stub connected on R2.
B. Configure eigrp stub receive-only on R1.
C. Configure eigrp stub static on R2.
D. Configure eigrp stub summary on R1.
Answer: A
Q2. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the BGP attribute on the left to the correct category on the right.
Answer:
Q3. A service provider is deploying L2VPN LAN services in its MPLS cloud. Which statement is true regarding LDP signaling and autodiscovery?
A. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that an LDP session is active with its P neighbor for autodiscovery to take place.
B. LDP signaling requires that each P is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place.
C. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session with a BGP route reflector is active for autodiscovery to take place.
D. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place.
Answer: D
Explanation:
LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified and a targeted LDP session is active for autodiscovery to take place. Although the configuration can be automated using NMS/OSS the overall scalability of the solution is poor as a PE must be associated with all other PEs for LDP discovery to work, which can lead to a large number of targeted LDP sessions (n2), which may be largely unused as not all VPLS will be associated with every PE. The security attributes of LDP are reasonably good, although additional configuration is required to prevent unauthorized sessions being set up. Although LDP can signal additional attributes, it requires additional configuration either from an NMS/OSS or static configuration.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/routers/ps368/products_white_paper09186a0080 1f6084.shtml
Q4. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about this device configuration is true?
A. The NMS needs a specific route configured to enable it to reach the Loopback0 interface of the device.
B. The ifindex of the device could be different when the device is reloaded.
C. The device will allow anyone to poll it via the public community.
D. The device configuration requires the AuthNoPriv security level.
Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the most commonly used identifiers in SNMP-based network management applications is the Interface Index (ifIndex) value. IfIndex is a unique identifying number associated with a physical or logical interface. For most software, the ifIndex is the name of the interface. Although relevant RFCs do not require that the correspondence between particular ifIndex values and their interfaces be maintained across reboots, applications such as device inventory, billing, and fault detection depend on this correspondence. Consider a situation where a simple monitoring software (like MRTG) is polling the interface statistics of the router specific serial interface going to the internet.
As an example, you could have these conditions prior to re-initialization:
physical port ifIndex
ethernet port
tokenring port
2
serial port
3
Therefore, the management application is polling the ifIndex 3, which corresponds to the serial port.
After the router re-initialization (reboot, reload and so on) the conditions change to something similar to this:
physical port
ifIndex
ethernet port
3
tokenring port
1
serial port
2
The management application continues polling the ifIndex 3, which corresponds now to the ethernet port. Therefore, if the management application is not warned by a trap, for example, that the router has been rebooted, the statistics polled could be completely wrong.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/simple-network-management-protocol-snmp/28420-ifIndex-Persistence.html
Q5. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about this capture are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is set to run for five minutes.
B. It continues to capture data after the buffer is full.
C. It is set to run for a period of 00:03:26.
D. It captures data only until the buffer is full.
E. It is set to use the default buffer type.
Answer: A,B
Q6. Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters.
B. It establishes IPsec security associations.
C. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers.
D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy.
E. It protects the identities of IPsec peers.
F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
The basic purpose of IKE phase 1 is to authenticate the IPSec peers and to set up a secure channel between the peers to enable IKE exchanges. IKE phase 1 performs the following functions:
. Authenticates and protects the identities of the IPSec peers
. Negotiates a matching IKE SA policy between peers to protect the IKE exchange
. Performs an authenticated Diffie-Hellman exchange with the end result of having matching shared secret keys
. Sets up a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 2 parameters
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=25474&seqNum=7
Q7. Refer to the exhibit.
If a console port is configured as shown, which response is displayed when you connect to the console port?
A. a blinking cursor
B. the message "Authorized users only"
C. the username prompt
D. three username name prompts followed by a timeout message
E. the message "Connection refused"
Answer: A
Q8. Which statement about a P router in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN is true?
A. It is unaware of VPN routes.
B. It connects to customer edge routers.
C. It participates in MPLS VPN routing.
D. It uses the running IGP to share VPN routes.
Answer: A
Q9. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OTV component on the left to the function it performs on the right.
Answer:
Q10. Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option?
A. $_cli_result
B. $_result
C. $_string_result
D. $_exit_status
Answer: D
Explanation:
The CLI event detector screens CLI commands for a regular expression match. When a match is found, an event is published. The match logic is performed on the fully expanded CLI command after the command is successfully parsed and before it is executed. The CLI event detector supports three publish modes:
. Synchronous publishing of CLI events--The CLI command is not executed until the EEM policy exits, and the EEM policy can control whether the command is executed. The read/write variable, _exit_status, allows you to set the exit status at policy exit for policies triggered from synchronous events. If _exit_status is 0, the command is skipped, if _exit_status is 1, the command is run.
. Asynchronous publishing of CLI events--The CLI event is published, and then the CLI command is executed.
. Asynchronous publishing of CLI events with command skipping--The CLI event is published, but the CLI command is not executed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-
book/eem-cr-e1.html
Q11. Which Carrier Ethernet service supports the multiplexing of multiple point-to-point EVCs across as a single UNI?
A. EPL
B. EVPL
C. EMS
D. ERMS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet Relay Service (ERS or EVPL)
An Ethernet Virtual Circuit (EVC) is used to logically connect endpoints, but multiple EVCs
could exist per single UNI. Each EVC is distinguished by 802.1q VLAN tag identification.
The ERS network acts as if the Ethernet frames have crossed a switched network, and certain control traffic is not carried between ends of the EVC. ERS is analogous to Frame Relay where the CE-VLAN tag plays the role of a Data-Link Connection Identifier (DLCI). The MEF term for this service is EVPL.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/ip_solution_center/5-1/carrier_ethernet/user/guide/l2vpn51book/concepts.html
Q12. Which two statements about PIM-DM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It forwards multicast packets on a source tree.
B. It requires an RP.
C. It forwards multicast packets on a shared distribution tree.
D. It floods multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
E. It floods multicast packets throughout the network.
F. It forwards multicast packets to neighbors that have requested the data.
Answer: A,E
Q13. Refer to the exhibit.
What does the return code 3 represent in this output?
A. The mapping of the replying router for the FEC is different.
B. The packet is label-switched at stack depth.
C. The return code is reserved.
D. The upstream index is unknown.
E. The replying router was the proper egress for the FEC.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Return Codes The Return Code is set to zero by the sender. The receiver can set it to one of the values listed below. The notation <RSC> refers to the Return Subcode. This field is filled in with the stack-depth for those codes that specify that. For all other codes, the Return Subcode MUST be set to zero.
Value Meaning
0 No return code
1 Malformed echo request received
2 One or more of the TLVs was not understood
3 Replying router is an egress for the FEC at stack-depth <RSC>
4 Replying router has no mapping for the FEC at stack-depth <RSC>
Reference: https://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc4379.txt
Q14. Refer to the exhibit.
Two multicast domains are configured as shown and connected with MSDP, but the two
domains are unable to communicate. Which two actions can you take to correct the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Change the peering IP address in AS 65220 to 10.0.0.20.
B. Change the peering AS on R2 to 65210.
C. Verify that UDP port 639 is open.
D. Verify that TCP port 139 is open.
E. Change the MSDP originator-id to GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 on both routers.
F. Change the MSDP peering IP address on R2 to 172.16.1.13.
Answer: A,B
Q15. Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native IPv6 blocks to guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?
A. 6rd tunneling
B. automatic 6to4 tunneling
C. NAT-PT tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. manual ipv6ip tunneling
F. automatic 4to6 tunneling
Answer: A