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Q1. Which three features are common to OSPF and IS-IS? (Choose three.)
A. They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes a shortest path tree.
B. They both use DR and BDR in the broadcast network.
C. They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies.
D. They both use NSSA and stub type areas to scale the network design.
E. They both have areas to form a two-level hierarchical topology.
Answer: A,C,E
Q2. Refer to the exhibit.
While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the error message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file.
What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be prevented?
A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP.
C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table.
Answer: C
Explanation:
L3HWFORWADING-2
Error MessageC4K_L3HWFORWARDING-2-FWDCAMFULL:L3 routing table is full.
Switching to software forwarding.
The hardware routing table is full; forwarding takes place in the software instead. The switch performance might be degraded.
Recommended Action: Reduce the size of the routing table. Enter the ip cef command to return to hardware forwarding.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/31sg/system/message/message/emsg.html
Q3. Refer to the exhibit.
What is the PHB class on this flow?
A. EF
B. none
C. AF21
D. CS4
Answer: D
Explanation:
This command shows the TOS value in hex, which is 80 in this case. The following chart shows some common DSCP/PHB Class values:
Service
DSCP value
TOS value
Juniper Alias
TOS hexadecimal
DSCP - TOS Binary
Premium IP
46
184
ef
B8
101110 - 101110xx
LBE
8
32
cs1
20
001000 - 001000xx
DWS
32
128
cs4
80
100000 - 100000xx
Network control
48
192
cs6
c0
110000 - 110000xx
Network control 2
56
224
cs7
e0
111000 - 111000xx
Reference: http://www.tucny.com/Home/dscp-tos
Q4. Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two.)
A. strict
B. extended
C. loose
D. targeted
E. basic
Answer: B,E
Q5. Which two options describe two functions of a neighbor solicitation message? (Choose two.)
A. It requests the link-layer address of the target.
B. It provides its own link-layer address to the target.
C. It requests the site-local address of the target.
D. It provides its own site-local address to the target.
E. It requests the admin-local address of the target.
F. It provides its own admin-local address to the target.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Neighbor solicitation messages are sent on the local link when a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node on the same local link (see the figure below). When a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node, the source address in a neighbor solicitation message is the IPv6 address of the node sending the neighbor solicitation message. The destination address in the neighbor solicitation message is the solicited-node multicast address that corresponds to the IPv6 address of the destination node. The neighbor solicitation message also includes the link-layer address of the source node.
Figure 1. IPv6 Neighbor Discovery: Neighbor Solicitation Message
After receiving the neighbor solicitation message, the destination node replies by sending a neighbor advertisement message, which has a value of 136 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, on the local link. The source address in the neighbor advertisement message is the IPv6 address of the node (more specifically, the IPv6 address of the node interface) sending the neighbor advertisement message. The destination address in the neighbor advertisement message is the IPv6 address of the node that sent the neighbor solicitation message. The data portion of the neighbor advertisement message includes the link-layer address of the node sending the neighbor advertisement message. After the source node receives the neighbor advertisement, the source node and destination node can communicate.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/xe-3s/ip6b-xe-3s-book/ip6-neighb-disc-xe.html
Q6. Which multicast protocol uses source trees and RPF?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM sparse mode
C. CBT
D. mOSPF
Answer: A
Explanation:
DVMRP builds a parent-child database using a constrained multicast model to build a forwarding tree rooted at the source of the multicast packets. Multicast packets are initially flooded down this source tree. If redundant paths are on the source tree, packets are not forwarded along those paths. Forwarding occurs until prune messages are received on those parent-child links, which further constrains the broadcast of multicast packets.
Reference: DVMRP and dense-mode PIM use only source trees and use RPF as previously described.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-1_19_ea1/configuration/guide/3550scg/swmcast.html
Q7. Refer to the exhibit.
A PE router is configured with a policy map that contains the policer shown. The policy map is configured in the inbound direction of an interface facing a CE router. If the PE router
receives 12Mb/s of traffic with the CoS value set to 7 on a 100-Mb/s interface from the CE router, what value of MPLS EXP is set when this traffic goes through the policer shown?
A. 0
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: B
Explanation:
Here, the policer is set where the conforming traffic is set to 10 percent of the 100 Mbps interface, so anything more than 10 Mbps will be placed into the exceeding traffic class, the traffic EXP value will be changed from 7 to 6 per the configuration.
Q8. Which two statements are true about RSTP? (Choose two.)
A. By default, RTSP uses a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
B. By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
C. If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration.
D. By default, RTSP uses the topology change TC flag.
E. If a port receives a superior BPDU, it immediately replies with its own information, and no reconfiguration is triggered.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The RSTP does not have a separate topology change notification (TCN) BPDU. It uses the topology change (TC) flag to show the topology changes.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-1_9_ea1/configuration/guide/scg/swmstp.html
Q9. Which three statements about RIPng are true? (Choose three.)
A. It supports route tags.
B. It sends updates on FF02::9.
C. Its RTE last byte is 0XFF.
D. It supports authentication.
E. It sends updates on UDP port 520.
F. It can be used on networks of greater than 15 hops.
Answer: A,B,C
Q10. Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ABR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
Answer: E
Explanation:
LSA Type 4 (called Summary ASBR LSA) is generated by the ABR to describe an ASBR to routers in other areas so that routers in other areas know how to get to external routes through that ASBR.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit.
Which feature can R1 use to fail over from R2 to R3 if the address for R2 becomes unavailable?
A. object tracking
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. LACP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The object tracking feature allows you to create a tracked object that multiple clients can use to modify the client behavior when a tracked object changes. Several clients register their interest with the tracking process, track the same object, and take different actions when the object state changes.
Clients include the following features:
. Embedded Event Manager (EEM)
. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
. Hot Standby Redundancy Protocol (HSRP)
. Virtual port channel (vPC)
. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
The object tracking monitors the status of the tracked objects and communicates any changes made to interested clients. Each tracked object is identified by a unique number that clients can use to configure the action to take when a tracked object changes state.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_object.html
Q12. Which statement about OTV is true?
A. The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled.
B. OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode.
C. The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured.
D. The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible.
Answer: A
Explanation:
OTV has the following configuration guidelines and limitations:
. If the same device serves as the default gateway in a VLAN interface and the OTV edge device for the VLANs being extended, configure OTV on a device (VDC or switch) that is separate from the VLAN interfaces (SVIs).
. When possible, we recommend that you use a separate nondefault VDC for OTV to allow for better manageability and maintenance.
. An overlay interface will only be in an up state if the overlay interface configuration is complete and enabled (no shutdown). The join interface has to be in an up state.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide/basic-otv.html
Q13. Which two statements about the command distance bgp 90 60 120 are true? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing the command is a Cisco best practice.
B. The external distance it sets is preferred over the internal distance.
C. The internal distance it sets is preferred over the external distance.
D. The local distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance.
E. The internal distance it sets may conflict with the EIGRP administrative distance.
F. The local distance it sets may conflict with the RIP administrative distance.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
To allow the use of external, internal, and local administrative distances that could be a better route than other external, internal, or local routes to a node, use the distance bgp command in address family or router configuration mode. To return to the default values, use the no form of this command. distance bgp external-distance internal-distance local-distance no distance bgp
. Syntax Description
external-distance
Administrative distance for BGP external routes. External routes are routes for which the best path is learned from a neighbor external to the autonomous system. Accept table values are from 1 to 255. The default is 20. Routes with a distance of 255 are not installed in the routing table.
internal-distance
Administrative distance for BGP internal routes. Internal routes are those routes that are learned from another BGP entity within the same autonomous system. Accept table values are from 1 to 255. The default is 200. Routes with a distance of 255 are not installed in the routing table.
local-distance
Administrative distance for BGP local routes. Local routes are those networks listed with a network router configuration command, often as back doors, for that router or for networks that are being redistributed from another process. Accept table values are from 1 to 255. The default is 200. Routes with a distance of 255 are not installed in the routing table.
Defaults
external-distance: 20
internal-distance: 200
local-distance: 200
In this case, the internal distance is 60 and the external is 90, and the local distance is 120 (same as RIP).
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/iproute/command/reference/fiprrp_r/1rfbgp1. html#wp1113874
Q14. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop each PHB on the left to the functionality it performs on the right.
Answer:
Q15. Which BGP feature allows BGP routing tables to be refreshed without impacting established BGP sessions?
A. BGP synchronization
B. soft reconfiguration
C. confederations
D. hard reset
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clearing a BGP session using a hard reset invalidates the cache and results in a negative impact on the operation of networks as the information in the cache becomes unavailable. Soft reset is recommended because it allows routing tables to be reconfigured and activated without clearing the BGP session. Soft reset is done on a per-neighbor basis.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_data_sheet09186a0080087b3a.ht ml