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Q1. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0?
A. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address.
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address.
C. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.
D. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most IPv6 networks use autoconfiguration, which requires the last 64 bits for the host. The first 64 bits are the IPv6 prefix. The first 16 bits of the prefix are always 2002:, the next 32 bits are the IPv4 address, and the last 16 bits of the prefix are available for addressing multiple IPv6 subnets behind the same 6to4 router. Since the IPv6 hosts using autoconfiguration already have determined the unique 64 bit host portion of their address, they must simply wait for a Router Advertisement indicating the first 64 bits of prefix to have a complete IPv6 address. A 6to4 router will know to send an encapsulated packet directly over IPv4 if the first 16 bits are 2002, using the next 32 as the destination, or otherwise send the packet to a well-known relay server, which has access to native IPv6.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/6to4
Q2. Which two statements about SNMP traps are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are sent by an agent after a specified event.
B. They are sent when solicited after a specified event.
C. They are equivalent to a community string.
D. They provide solicited data to the manager.
E. They are sent by a management station to an agent.
F. Vendor-specific traps can be configured.
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
The SNMP agent contains MIB variables whose values the SNMP manager can request or change. A manager can get a value from an agent or store a value into the agent. The agent gathers data from the MIB, the repository for information about device parameters and network data. The agent can also respond to a manager's requests to get or set data. An agent can send unsolicited traps to the manager. Traps are messages alerting the SNMP manager to a condition on the network. Traps can mean improper user authentication, restarts, link status (up or down), MAC address tracking, closing of a TCP connection, loss of connection to a neighbor, or other significant events.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/scg_2960/swsnmp.html
Q3. Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must you take to enable the WAN link to function properly?
A. Enter a clock rate on the DCE interface.
B. Enter a clock rate on the DTE interface.
C. Enter a compression algorithm on both interfaces.
D. Configure both interfaces for HDLC encapsulation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When connecting a serial cable to the serial interface of the router, clocking is provided by an external device, such as a CSU/DSU device. A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is a digital-interface device used to connect a router to a digital circuit. The router is the DTE (Data Terminal Equipment) and the external device is the DCE (Data Communications Equipment), where the DCE provides the clocking. However, in some cases we might connect two routers back-to-back using the routers’ serial interfaces (Example. Inside the router labs). Each router is a DTE by default. Since clocking is required to enable the interface, one of the two routers should function as DCE and should provide clocking. This can be done by using the "clock rate" command, from the interface configuration mode.
Reference: http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/how-to-configure-router-serial-interfaces.php
Q4. Which two options are the two underlying protocols on which a DMVPN relies? (Choose two.)
A. IPsec
B. NHRP
C. GDOI
D. ISAKMP
E. SSL
F. NLRI
Answer: A,B
Q5. Which three options are three benefits of an MPLS VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It allows IP address space overlap by maintaining customer routes in a private routing table.
B. It offers additional security by preventing intrusions directly into the customer routing table.
C. It offers a transparent virtual network in which all customer sites appear on one LAN.
D. It offers additional security by allowing only dynamic routing protocols between CE and PE routers.
E. It allows IP address space overlap by maintaining customer routes in the global routing table with unique BGP communities.
F. Providers can send only a default route for Internet access into the customer VPN.
Answer: A,B,C
Q6. Which neighbor-discovery message type is used to verify connectivity to a neighbor when the link-layer address of the neighbor is known?
A. neighbor solicitation
B. neighbor advertisement
C. router advertisement
D. router solicitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPv6 Neighbor Solicitation Message A value of 135 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header identifies a neighbor solicitation message. Neighbor solicitation messages are sent on the local link when a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node on the same local link (see the figure below). When a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node, the source address in a neighbor solicitation message is the IPv6 address of the node sending the neighbor solicitation message. The destination address in the neighbor solicitation message is the solicited-node multicast address that corresponds to the IPv6 address of the destination node. The neighbor solicitation message also includes the link-layer address of the source node.
Figure 1. IPv6 Neighbor Discovery: Neighbor Solicitation Message
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/xe-3s/ip6b-xe-3s-book/ip6-neighb-disc-xe.html
Q7. How is the MRU for a multilink bundle determined?
A. It is negotiated by LCP.
B. It is manually configured on the multilink bundle.
C. It is manually configured on all physical interfaces of a multilink bundle.
D. It is negotiated by NCP.
E. It is negotiated by IPCP.
Answer: A
Q8. Which two options are actions that EEM can perform after detecting an event? (Choose two.)
A. Place a port in err-disabled.
B. Generate an SNMP trap.
C. Reload the Cisco IOS Software.
D. Send an SMS.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
action snmp-trap
To specify the action of generating a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap when an Embedded Event Manager (EEM) applet is triggered, use the action snmp-trap command in applet configuration mode.
ction reload
To specify the action of reloading the Cisco IOS software when an Embedded Event Manager (EEM) applet is triggered, use the action reload command in applet configuration mode.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2s/feature/guide/fs_eem2.html
Q9. What does a nonzero forwarding address indicate in a type-5 LSA?
A. It indicates that this link-state ID is eligible for ECMP.
B. It indicates that this router should have an OSPF neighbor relationship with the forwarding address before using this link-state ID.
C. It indicates that the receiving router must check that the next hop is reachable in its routing table before using this link-state ID.
D. It indicates that traffic can be directly routed to this next hop in shared segment scenarios where the external route source is directly connected.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The value of the forwarding address specified by the autonomous system boundary router (ASBR) can be either 0.0.0.0 or non-zero. The 0.0.0.0 address indicates that the originating router (the ASBR) is the next hop. The forwarding address is determined by these conditions:
. The forwarding address is set to 0.0.0.0 if the ASBR redistributes routes and OSPF is not enabled on the next hop interface for those routes.
. These conditions set the forwarding address field to a non-zero address: ASBR's next hop interface address falls under the network range specified in the router ospf command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13682-10.html
Q10. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the route target for 192.168.1.0/24 is true?
A. Its route target is 64512:100010051.
B. Its route targets are 64512:100010051, 64512:2002250, and 64512:3002300.
C. Its route target is 64512:3002300.
D. Its route targets are 64512:100010051 and 64512:3002300.
E. Its route targets are 64512:2002250 and 64512:3002300.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Here we are using route maps to change the route target for the 192.168.1.0/24 network from the default route target of 64512:100010051 to 64512:3002300.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.
Q12. When you implement PfR, which IP SLA probe is used to determine the MOS?
A. jitter
B. latency
C. packet loss
D. throughput
Answer: A
Q13. Which implementation can cause packet loss when the network includes asymmetric routing paths?
A. the use of ECMP routing
B. the use of penultimate hop popping
C. the use of Unicast RPF
D. disabling Cisco Express Forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation:
When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router's choice for sending return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are present in the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/unicast-rpf.html
Q14. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two issues can cause the interface VLAN10 to be down/down? (Choose two.)
A. The VLAN is inactive or has been removed from the VLAN database.
B. STP is in a forwarding state on the port.
C. A Layer 2 access port is configured with VLAN10, but is in a down/down state.
D. The autostate exclude feature was used on interface VLAN10.
Answer: A,C
Q15. Which three events can cause a control plane to become overwhelmed? (Choose three.)
A. a worm attack
B. processing a stream of jumbo packets
C. a microburst
D. a configuration error
E. a reconvergence failure
F. a device-generated FTP session
Answer: A,D,E