Cisco 400-201 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which technology is a forwarding decision point in a PE router that provides flexibility to make many Layer 2 flow decisions within an interface? 

A. local connect 

B. AToM 

C. VPLS 

D. pseudowire 

E. EFP 

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Q2. MPLS Service Providers use Route Distinguishers and Route Targets as methods to control routing for customer VRFs. Which two statements are true about Route Distinguishers and Route Targets? (Choose two.) 

A. Route Targets are values that are used by a PE router to uniquely identify a VRF within its local MP-BGP VPNv4 table. 

B. Route Distinguishers are used by PE routers by exporting and importing routes into a local VRF. 

C. Route Targets are used by PE routers to define how to import and export prefixes into a local VRF database. 

D. Route Targets are extended communities that are used by MP-BGP to identify routes as they are advertised to neighbor PE routers. 

E. Route Distinguishers are values that are used by a PE router to uniquely identify a VRF within its local MP-BGP VPNv4 table. 

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Q3. Which are two major changes SyncE offers over traditional Ethernet to make it suitable for clock distribution? (Choose two.) 

A. SyncE introduces the concept of “Boundary Clocks” and “Transparent Clocks” improving network scalability and accuracy of clock synchronization. 

B. Industry standard that guarantee interoperability, since granular details, such as specific field values are specified. 

C. A mandated clock accuracy of 4.6ppm. 

D. The ESMC protocol for clock selection, distribution, management, traceability, and failover. 

E. High-priority synchronization packets so it can continually adjust its own oscillator. 

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Q4. A network administrator wants to implement an IP dampening feature for a network. Which parameter identifies how fast the accumulated penalty can decay exponentially? 

A. reuse threshold 

B. suppress threshold 

C. half-life period 

D. maximum suppress time 

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Q5. QoS is applied on an outgoing interface as shown below: 

What will the QoS result be for egress traffic with an average queue depth of 40 that is marked as DSCP AF32? 

A. Traffic will be dropped with a random rate less than the one defined by MPD. 

B. All traffic will be tail dropped. 

C. Traffic will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 20. 

D. Traffic will be dropped with a rate of 1 packet out of 30. 

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Q6. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the MPLS operation listed on the left to the correct order of the operation on the right. 

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Q7. Which network interface technology eliminates the need for an external transponder at service provider sites? 

A. IPoDWDM 

B. CWDM 

C. SONET 

D. SDH 

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Q8. Which two frame types are correct when configuring T3 interfaces? (Choose two.) 

A. M23 

B. G.832 

C. Extended Super Frame 

D. C-bit parity 

E. G.751 

F. Super Frame 

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Q9. Users are complaining of intermittent high packet loss for seconds at a time. The engineer troubleshooting the issue finds that a TenGigE link is bouncing for milliseconds at a time, causing the traffic path to reconverge onto a congested FastEthernet link. What can the engineer do to prevent this service-affecting reconvergence only in the case of momentary link bounces until the link can be repaired? 

A. decrease the carrier-delay up on both sides of the link 

B. disable keepalives and BFD 

C. decrease the carrier-delay down on both sides of the link 

D. increase the carrier-delay up on both sides of the link 

E. increase the carrier-delay down on both sides of the link 

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Q10. Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly. Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the P router. Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP functionalities? 

A. ip prefix-list List1 deny prefix/prefix_length 

! 

mpls ldp label 

allocate global prefix-list List1 

B. mpls ldp label 

allocate global host-routes 

C. access-list 1 permit subnet wildcard 

mpls ldp neighbor neighbor_ip labels accept 3 

D. mpls ldp password required for 10 

access-list 10 permit host_ip_1 

access-list 10 permit host_ip_2 

access-list 10 permit host_ip_n 

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Q11. In a Layer 2 VPN service, which is the default behavior of an EVC-based platform with regards to VLAN manipulation? 

A. keeps the VLAN tag of the incoming frame 

B. attaches two VLAN tags to the incoming frame 

C. removes the VLAN tag from the incoming frame 

D. removes all the VLAN tags from the incoming frame 

E. sets the VLAN tag of the incoming frame 

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Q12. Refer to the exhibit. 

All routers have OSPF adjacency with the directly connected routers, yet RC cannot receive OSPF updates from Area 0 To fix this issue, which configuration should be applied? 

A. On RD router 

router ospf 1 

area 1 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 

On RB router: 

router ospf 1 

area 1 virtual-link 4.4.4.4 

B. On RC router. 

router ospf 1 

area 2 virtual-link 3.3.3.3 

On RB router: 

router ospf 1 

area 2 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 

C. On RC router 

router ospf 1 

area 0 virtual-link 1.1.1.1 

On RA router: 

router ospf 1 

area 2 virtual-link 2.2.2.2 

D. On RD router: 

router ospf 1. 

area 1 virtual-link 1.1.1.1 

On RA router: 

router ospf 1 areal virtual-link 4.4.4.4 

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Q13. Which BGP feature improves the convergence and response time to adjacency changes with BGP neighbors? 

A. Fast Peering Session Deactivation 

B. BGP Multihop 

C. reducing BGP scanner timing to the minimum that is supported 

D. TTL Security Check 

E. Next-Hop Address Tracking 

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Q14. In a multi-VRF scenario using OSPF as PE-CE routing protocol, which Cisco IOS command allows the CE to accepts routes from PE inside of each VRF? 

A. router ospf <process id> vrf<vrf name> capability vrf-lite 

B. router ospf<process id> vrf<vrf name> domain-id <value> 

C. router ospf <process id> domain-id <value> 

D. router ospf <process id> capability vrf-lite 

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Q15. In a routing virtualization concept, which are the two main techniques for creating virtualized router entities as defined by their physical and operational characteristics? (Choose two.) 

A. VDC 

B. SVR 

C. DRP 

D. HVR 

E. SDR 

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