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Q1. OTSPOT
Answer:
119. For which task is the hypervisor responsible in a virtualized server environment?
A. controls physical hardware resources
B. migrates virtual machines via vMotion
C. correlates traffic between physical servers
D. installs virtual machine operating systems
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured a primary fabric interconnect with this configuration. Which two pieces of information are needed to guarantee high availability and fail over for the secondary fabric interconnect for the cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cisc0123!
B. 10.10.10.10
C. 10.10.10.1
D. 10.10.10.16
E. 10.0.10.25
F. Fabric-A
Answer: A,B
Q3. Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license
Answer: A
Q4. What two options are performed during initial setup of a UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Configuring Nodes
B. Configuring Servers
C. Configure Routing
D. Configure Equipment Policy
E. Configure Ports
Answer: D,E
Q5. Which is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?
A. least loaded
B. round robin
C. hash cookie
D. least bandwidth
E. least connections
Answer: B
Q6. What option automatically performs an inventory and deep discovery of any subsequently attached equipment, without requiring manual intervention?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Answer: A
Q7. What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Answer: A
Q8. What two protocols can be used to connect to storage arrays on a converged Ethernet/IP network? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. Fibre Channel
C. ISCSI
D. InfiniBand
E. FabricPath
Answer: A,C
Q9. An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8 Answer: C
Answer:
Q10. Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Answer: B,E,G
Q11. Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Answer: C
Q12. Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches
Answer: D
Q13. Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Answer: C,D,E,F
Q14. Which option describes the function of a Cisco Nexus 2000?
A. positioned for access layer switching
B. to expand the port density of a parent switch
C. to provide edge routing
D. to host virtual appliances
Answer: B
Q15. Which port type pair is used to connect FCoE switches in multihop FCoE?
A. N to F
B. VF to VN
C. VE to VE
D. TE to TE
E. NL to NF
Answer: C
Q16. Which three items are control plane protocols? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. UDLD
C. CoPP
D. IS-IS
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,D
Q17. Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. pass-through switching
B. hypervisor controlled
C. native switching
D. channeled uplink
E. store-and-forward switching
Answer: A,B