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Q1. - (Topic 3)
A user is configuring a CloudWatch alarm on RDS to receive a notification when the CPU utilization of RDS is higher than 50%. The user has setup an alarm when there is some inactivity on RDS, such as RDS unavailability. How can the user configure this?
A. Setup the notification when the CPU is more than 75% on RDS
B. Setup the notification when the state is Insufficient Data
C. Setup the notification when the CPU utilization is less than 10%
D. It is not possible to setup the alarm on RDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch alarms watch a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and performs one or more actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a number of time periods. The alarm has three states: Alarm, OK and Insufficient data. The Alarm will change to Insufficient Data when any of the three situations arise: when the alarm has just started, when the metric is not available or when enough data is not available for the metric to determine the alarm state. If the user wants to find that RDS is not available, he can setup to receive the notification when the state is in Insufficient data.
Q2. - (Topic 1)
You have been asked to leverage Amazon VPC BC2 and SOS to implement an application that submits and receives millions of messages per second to a message queue. You want to ensure your application has sufficient bandwidth between your EC2 instances and SQS Which option will provide the most scalable solution for communicating between the application and SQS?
A. Ensure the application instances are properly configured with an Elastic Load Balancer
B. Ensure the application instances are launched in private subnets with the EBS-optimized option enabled
C. Ensure the application instances are launched in public subnets with the associate-public-IP-address=true option enabled
D. Launch application instances in private subnets with an Auto Scaling group and Auto Scaling triggers configured to watch the SQS queue size
Answer: B
Explanation: Reference:
http://www.cardinalpath.com/autoscaling-your-website-with-amazon-web-services-part-2/
Q3. - (Topic 3)
A user has launched multiple EC2 instances for the purpose of development and testing in the same region. The user wants to find the separate cost for the production and development instances. How can the user find the cost distribution?
A. The user should download the activity report of the EC2 services as it has the instance ID wise data
B. It is not possible to get the AWS cost usage data of single region instances separately
C. The user should use Cost Distribution Metadata and AWS detailed billing
D. The user should use Cost Allocation Tags and AWS billing reports
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS provides cost allocation tags to categorize and track the AWS costs. When the user applies tags to his AWS resources (such as Amazon EC2 instances or Amazon S3 buckets., AWS generates a cost allocation report as a comma-separated value (CSV file. with the usage and costs aggregated by those tags. The user can apply tags which represent business categories (such as cost centres, application names, or instance type – Production/Dev. to organize usage costs across multiple services.
Q4. - (Topic 3)
A user is trying to understand the CloudWatch metrics for the AWS services. It is required that the user should first understand the namespace for the AWS services. Which of the below mentioned is not a valid namespace for the AWS services?
A. AWS/StorageGateway
B. AWS/CloudTrail
C. AWS/ElastiCache
D. AWS/SWF
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch is basically a metrics repository. The AWS product puts metrics into this repository, and the user can retrieve the data or statistics based on those metrics. To distinguish the data for each service, the CloudWatch metric has a namespace. Namespaces are containers for metrics. All AWS services that provide the Amazon CloudWatch data use a namespace string, beginning with "AWS/". All the services which are supported by CloudWatch will have some namespace. CloudWatch does not monitor CloudTrail. Thus, the namespace “AWS/CloudTrail” is incorrect.
Q5. - (Topic 3)
Your business is building a new application that will store its entire customer database on a RDS MySQL database, and will have various applications and users that will query that data for different purposes.
Large analytics jobs on the database are likely to cause other applications to not be able to get the query results they need to, before time out. Also, as your data grows, these analytics jobs will start to take more time, increasing the negative effect on the other applications.
How do you solve the contention issues between these different workloads on the same data?
A. Enable Multi-AZ mode on the RDS instance
B. Use ElastiCache to offload the analytics job data
C. Create RDS Read-Replicas for the analytics work
D. Run the RDS instance on the largest size possible
Answer: B
Q6. - (Topic 3)
A user has created a subnet in VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user has not selected the option to assign the IP address while launching the instance. The user has 3 elastic IPs and is trying to assign one of the Elastic IPs to the VPC instance from the console. The console does not show any instance in the IP assignment screen. What is a possible reason that the instance is unavailable in the assigned IP console?
A. The IP address may be attached to one of the instances
B. The IP address belongs to a different zone than the subnet zone
C. The user has not created an internet gateway
D. The IP addresses belong to EC2 Classic; so they cannot be assigned to VPC
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When the user is launching an instance he needs toselect an option which attaches a public IP to the instance. If the user has not selected the option to attach the public IP then it will only have a private IP when launched. If the user wants to connect to an instance from the internet he should create an elastic IP with VPC. If the elastic IP is a part of EC2 Classic it cannot be assigned to a VPC instance.
Q7. - (Topic 2)
A user is planning to setup notifications on the RDS DB for a snapshot. Which of the below mentioned event categories is not supported by RDS for this snapshot source type?
A. Backup
B. Creation
C. Deletion
D. Restoration
Answer: A
Explanation:
Amazon RDS uses the Amazon Simple Notification Service to provide a notification when an Amazon RDS event occurs. Event categories for a snapshot source type include: Creation, Deletion, and Restoration. The Backup is a part of DB instance source type.
Q8. - (Topic 3)
How can you secure data at rest on an EBS volume?
A. Encrypt the volume using the S3 server-side encryption service.
B. Attach the volume to an instance using EC2's SSL interface.
C. Create an IAM policy that restricts read and write access to the volume.
D. Write the data randomly instead of sequentially.
E. Use an encrypted file system m top of the EBS volume.
Answer: C
Explanation: Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/policies_examples.html
Q9. - (Topic 2)
A user is planning to use AWS Cloudformation. Which of the below mentioned functionalities does not help him to correctly understand Cloudfromation?
A. Cloudformation follows the DevOps model for the creation of Dev & Test
B. AWS Cloudfromation does not charge the user for its service but only charges for the AWS resources created with it
C. Cloudformation works with a wide variety of AWS services, such as EC2, EBS, VPC, IAM, S3, RDS,
ELB, etc
D. CloudFormation provides a set of application bootstrapping scripts which enables the user to install Software
Answer: A
Explanation:
AWS Cloudformation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment, configuration, management and related activities. It supports a wide variety of AWS services, such as EC2, EBS, AS, ELB, RDS, VPC, etc. It also provides application bootstrapping scripts which enable the user to install software packages or create folders. It is free of the cost and only charges the user for the services created with it. The only challenge is that it does not follow any model, such as DevOps; instead customers can define templates and use them to provision and manage the AWS resources in an orderly way.
Q10. - (Topic 2)
A sys admin has created the below mentioned policy and applied to an S3 object named aws.jpg. The aws.jpg is inside a bucket named cloudacademy. What does this policy define?
"Statement": [{
"Sid": "Stmt1388811069831",
"Effect": "Allow",
"Principal": { "AWS": "*"},
"Action": [ "s3:GetObjectAcl", "s3:ListBucket", "s3:GetObject"],
"Resource": [ "arn:aws:s3:::cloudacademy/*.jpg"]
}]
A. It is not possible to define a policy at the object level
B. It will make all the objects of the bucket cloudacademy as public
C. It will make the bucket cloudacademy as public
D. the aws.jpg object as public
Answer: A
Explanation:
A system admin can grant permission to the S3 objects or buckets to any user or make objects public using the bucket policy and user policy. Both use the JSON-based access policy language. Generally if the user is defining the ACL on the bucket, the objects in the bucket do not inherit it and vice a versa. The bucket policy can be defined at the bucket level which allows the objects as well as the bucket to be public with a single policy applied to that bucket. It cannot be applied at the object level.
Q11. - (Topic 2)
A user has setup a billing alarm using CloudWatch for $200. The usage of AWS exceeded $200 after some days. The user wants to increase the limit from $200 to $400? What should the user do?
A. Create a new alarm of $400 and link it with the first alarm
B. It is not possible to modify the alarm once it has crossed the usage limit
C. Update the alarm to set the limit at $400 instead of $200
D. Create a new alarm for the additional $200 amount
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS CloudWatch supports enabling the billing alarm on the total AWS charges. The estimated charges are calculated and sent several times daily to CloudWatch in the form of metric data. This data will be stored for 14 days. This data also includes the estimated charges for every service in AWS used by the user, as well as the estimated overall AWS charges. If the user wants to increase the limit, the user can modify the alarm and specify a new threshold.
Q12. - (Topic 3)
A user is trying to understand the detailed CloudWatch monitoring concept. Which of the below mentioned services provides detailed monitoring with CloudWatch without charging the user extra?
A. AWS Auto Scaling
B. AWS Route 53
C. AWS EMR
D. AWS SNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. It provides either basic or detailed monitoring for the supported AWS products. In basic monitoring, a service sends data points to CloudWatch every five minutes, while in detailed monitoring a service sends data points to CloudWatch every minute. Services, such as RDS, ELB, OpsWorks, and Route 53 can provide the monitoring data every minute without charging the user.
Q13. - (Topic 3)
A user has configured Auto Scaling with 3 instances. The user had created a new AMI after updating one of the instances. If the user wants to terminate two specific instances to ensure that Auto Scaling launches an instances with the new launch configuration, which command should he run?
A. as-delete-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --no-decrement-desired-capacity
B. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --update-desired-capacity
C. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --decrement-desired-capacity
D. as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> --no-decrement-desired-capacity
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Auto Scaling command as-terminate-instance-in-auto-scaling-group <Instance ID> will terminate the specific instance ID. The user is required to specify the parameter as –no-decrement-desired-capacity to ensure that it launches a new instance from the launch config after terminating the instance. If the user specifies the parameter --decrement-desired-capacity then Auto Scaling will terminate the instance and decrease the desired capacity by 1.
Q14. - (Topic 2)
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/24. The user has created a public subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.0/25 and a private subnet with CIDR 20.0.0.128/25. The user has launched one instance each in the private and public subnets. Which of the below mentioned options cannot be the correct IP address (private IP. assigned to an instance in the public or private subnet?
A. 20.0.0.255
B. 20.0.0.132
C. 20.0.0.122
D. 20.0.0.55
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the user creates a subnet in VPC, he specifies the CIDR block for the subnet. In this case the user has created a VPC with the CIDR block 20.0.0.0/24, which supports 256 IP addresses (20.0.0.0 to 20.0.0.255.. The public subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.0 - 20.0.0.127 and the private subnet will have IP addresses between 20.0.0.128 -20.0.0.255. AWS reserves the first four IP addresses and the last IP address in each subnet’s CIDR block. These are not available for the user to use. Thus, the instance cannot have an IP address of 20.0.0.255
Q15. - (Topic 2)
A user is planning to setup infrastructure on AWS for the Christmas sales. The user is planning to use Auto Scaling based on the schedule for proactive scaling. What advise would you give to the user?
A. It is good to schedule now because if the user forgets later on it will not scale up
B. The scaling should be setup only one week before Christmas
C. Wait till end of November before scheduling the activity
D. It is not advisable to use scheduled based scaling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Auto Scaling based on a schedule allows the user to scale the application in response to predictable load changes. The user can specify any date in the future to scale up or down during that period. As per Auto Scaling the user can schedule an action for up to a month in the future. Thus, it is recommended to wait until end of November before scheduling for Christmas.
Q16. - (Topic 3)
A user has launched an EC2 instance store backed instance in the US-East-1a zone. The user created AMI #1 and copied it to the Europe region. After that, the user made a few updates to the application running in the US-East-1a zone. The user makes an AMI#2 after the changes. If the user launches a new instance in Europe from the AMI #1 copy, which of the below mentioned statements is true?
A. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy as AWS just copies the reference of the original AMI during the copying. Thus, the copied AMI will have all the updated data
B. The new instance will have the changes made after the AMI copy since AWS keeps updating the AMI
C. It is not possible to copy the instance store backed AMI from one region to another
D. The new instance in the EU region will not have the changes made after the AMI copy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Within EC2, when the user copies an AMI, the new AMI is fully independent of the source AMI; there is no link to the original (source. AMI. The user can modify the source AMI without affecting the new AMI and vice a versa. Therefore, in this case even if the source AMI is modified, the copied AMI of the EU region will not have the changes. Thus, after copy the user needs to copy the new source AMI to the destination region to get those changes.