PMI CAPM Free Practice Questions

NEW QUESTION 1

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

• A. risk taking and risk avoidance.
• B. known risk and unknown risk.
• C. identified risk and analyzed risk.
• D. varying degrees of ris

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

• A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
• B. Monitor and Control Risk
• C. Monitor and Control Project Work
• D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

• A. Scope
• B. Quality
• C. Specification
• D. Grade

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

• A. The project charter.
• B. The stakeholder analysis.
• C. A communication management plan.
• D. A stakeholder registe

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

• A. Negotiation
• B. Roles and responsibilities
• C. Recognition and rewards
• D. Prizing and promoting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

• A. Matrix diagram
• B. Histogram
• C. Control chart
• D. Flowchart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

• A. Develop Schedule
• B. Create VVBS
• C. Estimate Activity Resources
• D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

• A. Develop Human Resource Plan.
• B. Manage Project Team.
• C. Develop Project Team.
• D. Acquire Project Tea

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

• A. Project charter
• B. Project scope statement
• C. Scope management plan
• D. Project document updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

• A. Project
• B. Plan
• C. Program
• D. Portfolio

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

• A. Schedule
• B. Checklist
• C. Assumption
• D. Cost-Benefit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

• A. Purchase requisition
• B. Purchase order
• C. Verbal agreement
• D. Request for quote

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

• A. Source selection criteria.
• B. Market research.
• C. A stakeholder register.
• D. A records management syste

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

• A. Project document updates
• B. Activity list
• C. Activity attributes
• D. Project calendars

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

• A. structure.
• B. process asset.
• C. matrix.
• D. breakdown structur

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be
involved in a project?

• A. Feedback analysis
• B. Stakeholder analysis
• C. Communication management plan
• D. Stakeholder management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

• A. Cost estimates.
• B. Resource calendars,
• C. The project charter,
• D. The risk registe

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

• A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.
• B. Central coordination of communication management across projects.
• C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.
• D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise leve

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

• A. change control tools
• B. expert judgment
• C. meetings
• D. analytical techniques

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific
sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

• A. External
• B. Internal
• C. Mandatory
• D. Discretionary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

• A. Plan Risk Management.
• B. Plan Risk Responses.
• C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
• D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysi

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

• A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
• B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
• C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
• D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

• A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget
• B. Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role
• C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role
• D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

• A. Project reports
• B. Issue log
• C. Lessons learned documentation
• D. Work performance information

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

• A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
• B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
• C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
• D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
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