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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Certification Exam

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CompTIA CAS-002 Free Practice Questions

Q1. - (Topic 2) 

Customers have recently reported incomplete purchase history and other anomalies while accessing their account history on the web server farm. Upon investigation, it has been determined that there are version mismatches of key e-commerce applications on the production web servers. The development team has direct access to the production servers and is most likely the cause of the different release versions. Which of the following process level solutions would address this problem? 

A. Implement change control practices at the organization level. 

B. Adjust the firewall ACL to prohibit development from directly accessing the production server farm. 

C. Update the vulnerability management plan to address data discrepancy issues. 

D. Change development methodology from strict waterfall to agile. 

Answer:

Q2. - (Topic 1) 

An attacker attempts to create a DoS event against the VoIP system of a company. The attacker uses a tool to flood the network with a large number of SIP INVITE traffic. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to thwart such an attack? 

A. Install IDS/IPS systems on the network 

B. Force all SIP communication to be encrypted 

C. Create separate VLANs for voice and data traffic 

D. Implement QoS parameters on the switches 

Answer:

Q3. - (Topic 3) 

In an effort to reduce internal email administration costs, a company is determining whether to outsource its email to a managed service provider that provides email, spam, and malware protection. The security manager is asked to provide input regarding any security implications of this change. 

Which of the following BEST addresses risks associated with disclosure of intellectual property? 

A. Require the managed service provider to implement additional data separation. 

B. Require encrypted communications when accessing email. 

C. Enable data loss protection to minimize emailing PII and confidential data. 

D. Establish an acceptable use policy and incident response policy. 

Answer:

Q4. - (Topic 5) 

A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input? 

A. Client side input validation 

B. Stored procedure 

C. Encrypting credit card details 

D. Regular expression matching 

Answer:

Q5. - (Topic 5) 

A company wishes to purchase a new security appliance. A security administrator has extensively researched the appliances, and after presenting security choices to the company’s management team, they approve of the proposed solution. Which of the following documents should be constructed to acquire the security appliance? 

A. SLA 

B. RFQ 

C. RFP 

D. RFI 

Answer:

Q6. - (Topic 2) 

A vulnerability scanner report shows that a client-server host monitoring solution operating in the credit card corporate environment is managing SSL sessions with a weak algorithm which does not meet corporate policy. Which of the following are true statements? (Select TWO). 

A. The X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non trusted public CA. 

B. The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers. 

C. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority. 

D. The client-server handshake is based on TLS authentication. 

E. The X509 V3 certificate is expired. 

F. The client-server implements client-server mutual authentication with different certificates. 

Answer: B,C 

Q7. - (Topic 4) 

A corporation implements a mobile device policy on smartphones that utilizes a white list for allowed applications. Recently, the security administrator notices that a consumer cloud based storage application has been added to the mobile device white list. Which of the following security implications should the security administrator cite when recommending the application’s removal from the white list? 

A. Consumer cloud storage systems retain local copies of each file on the smartphone, as well as in the cloud, causing a potential data breach if the phone is lost or stolen. 

B. Smartphones can export sensitive data or import harmful data with this application causing the potential for DLP or malware issues. 

C. Consumer cloud storage systems could allow users to download applications to the smartphone. Installing applications this way would circumvent the application white list. 

D. Smartphones using consumer cloud storage are more likely to have sensitive data remnants on them when they are repurposed. 

Answer:

Q8. - (Topic 5) 

A system administrator has a responsibility to maintain the security of the video teleconferencing system. During a self-audit of the video teleconferencing room, the administrator notices that speakers and microphones are hard-wired and wireless enabled. Which of the following security concerns should the system administrator have about the existing technology in the room? 

A. Wired transmissions could be intercepted by remote users. 

B. Bluetooth speakers could cause RF emanation concerns. 

C. Bluetooth is an unsecure communication channel. 

D. Wireless transmission causes interference with the video signal. 

Answer:

Q9. - (Topic 2) 

A facilities manager has observed varying electric use on the company’s metered service lines. The facility management rarely interacts with the IT department unless new equipment is being delivered. However, the facility manager thinks that there is a correlation between spikes in electric use and IT department activity. Which of the following business processes and/or practices would provide better management of organizational resources with the IT department’s needs? (Select TWO). 

A. Deploying a radio frequency identification tagging asset management system 

B. Designing a business resource monitoring system 

C. Hiring a property custodian 

D. Purchasing software asset management software 

E. Facility management participation on a change control board 

F. Rewriting the change board charter 

G. Implementation of change management best practices 

Answer: E,G 

Q10. - (Topic 2) 

An IT manager is working with a project manager to implement a new ERP system capable of transacting data between the new ERP system and the legacy system. As part of this process, both parties must agree to the controls utilized to secure data connections between the two enterprise systems. This is commonly documented in which of the following formal documents? 

A. Memorandum of Understanding 

B. Information System Security Agreement 

C. Interconnection Security Agreement 

D. Interoperability Agreement 

E. Operating Level Agreement 

Answer:

Q11. - (Topic 4) 

Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO). 

A. Code review 

B. Sandbox 

C. Local proxy 

D. Fuzzer 

E. Web vulnerability scanner 

Answer: C,D 

Q12. - (Topic 5) 

A security engineer at a software development company has identified several vulnerabilities in a product late in the development cycle. This causes a huge delay for the release of the product. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent these issues from occurring in the future? 

A. Recommend switching to an SDLC methodology and perform security testing during each maintenance iteration 

B. Recommend switching to a spiral software development model and perform security testing during the requirements gathering 

C. Recommend switching to a waterfall development methodology and perform security testing during the testing phase 

D. Recommend switching to an agile development methodology and perform security testing during iterations 

Answer:

Q13. - (Topic 4) 

Company ABC’s SAN is nearing capacity, and will cause costly downtimes if servers run out disk space. Which of the following is a more cost effective alternative to buying a new SAN? 

A. Enable multipath to increase availability 

B. Enable deduplication on the storage pools 

C. Implement snapshots to reduce virtual disk size 

D. Implement replication to offsite datacenter 

Answer:

Q14. - (Topic 2) 

A business unit of a large enterprise has outsourced the hosting and development of a new external website which will be accessed by premium customers, in order to speed up the time to market timeline. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate? 

A. The external party providing the hosting and website development should be obligated under contract to provide a secure service which is regularly tested (vulnerability and penetration). SLAs should be in place for the resolution of newly identified vulnerabilities and a guaranteed uptime. 

B. The use of external organizations to provide hosting and web development services is not recommended as the costs are typically higher than what can be achieved internally. In addition, compliance with privacy regulations becomes more complex and guaranteed uptimes are difficult to track and measure. 

C. Outsourcing transfers all the risk to the third party. An SLA should be in place for the resolution of newly identified vulnerabilities and penetration / vulnerability testing should be conducted regularly. 

D. Outsourcing transfers the risk to the third party, thereby minimizing the cost and any legal obligations. An MOU should be in place for the resolution of newly identified vulnerabilities and penetration / vulnerability testing should be conducted regularly. 

Answer:

Q15. - (Topic 4) 

The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company’s external router’s IP which is 128.20.176.19: 

11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 

11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 

11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 

11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400 

Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration? 

A. After the senior engineer used a network analyzer to identify an active Fraggle attack, the company’s ISP should be contacted and instructed to block the malicious packets. 

B. After the senior engineer used the above IPS logs to detect the ongoing DDOS attack, an IPS filter should be enabled to block the attack and restore communication. 

C. After the senior engineer used a mirror port to capture the ongoing amplification attack, a BGP sinkhole should be configured to drop traffic at the source networks. 

D. After the senior engineer used a packet capture to identify an active Smurf attack, an ACL should be placed on the company’s external router to block incoming UDP port 19 traffic. 

Answer:

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