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Certified Information Security Manager Certification Exam

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Isaca CISM Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following would be MOST relevant to include in a cost-benefit analysis of a two-factor authentication system? 

A. Annual loss expectancy (ALE) of incidents 

B. Frequency of incidents 

C. Total cost of ownership (TCO) 

D. Approved budget for the project 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The total cost of ownership (TCO) would be the most relevant piece of information in that it would establish a cost baseline and it must be considered for the full life cycle of the control. Annual loss expectancy (ALE) and the frequency of incidents could help measure the benefit, but would have more of an indirect relationship as not all incidents may be mitigated by implementing a two-factor authentication system. The approved budget for the project may have no bearing on what the project may actually cost. 

Q2. Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes? 

A. Standards 

B. Procedures 

C. Policies 

D. Guidelines 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes. 

Q3. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for inclusion in an information security 

strategy? 

A. Business controls designated as key controls 

B. Security processes, methods, tools and techniques 

C. Firewall rule sets, network defaults and intrusion detection system (IDS) settings 

D. Budget estimates to acquire specific security tools 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A set of security objectives, processes, methods, tools and techniques together constitute a security strategy. Although IT and business governance are intertwined, business controls may not be included in a security strategy. Budgets will generally not be included in an information security strategy. Additionally, until information security strategy is formulated and implemented, specific tools will not be identified and specific cost estimates will not be available. Firewall rule sets, network defaults and intrusion detection system (IDS) settings are technical details subject to periodic change, and are not appropriate content for a strategy document. 

Q4. Which of the following is characteristic of centralized information security management? 

A. More expensive to administer 

B. Better adherence to policies 

C. More aligned with business unit needs 

D. Faster turnaround of requests 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Centralization of information security management results in greater uniformity and better adherence to security policies. It is generally less expensive to administer due to the economics of scale. However, turnaround can be slower due to the lack of alignment with business units. 

Q5. One way to determine control effectiveness is by determining: 

A. whether it is preventive, detective or compensatory. 

B. the capability of providing notification of failure. 

C. the test results of intended objectives. 

D. the evaluation and analysis of reliability. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Control effectiveness requires a process to verify that the control process worked as intended. Examples such as dual-control or dual-entry bookkeeping provide verification and assurance that the process operated as intended. The type of control is not relevant, and notification of failure is not determinative of control strength. Reliability is not an indication of control strength; weak controls can be highly reliable, even if they are ineffective controls. 

Q6. Which of the following will BEST protect an organization from internal security attacks? 

A. Static IP addressing 

B. Internal address translation 

C. Prospective employee background checks 

D. Employee awareness certification program 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Because past performance is a strong predictor of future performance, background checks of prospective employees best prevents attacks from originating within an organization. Static IP addressing does little to prevent an internal attack. Internal address translation using non-routable addresses is useful against external attacks but not against internal attacks. Employees who certify that they have read security policies are desirable, but this does not guarantee that the employees behave honestly. 

Q7. Investment in security technology and processes should be based on: 

A. clear alignment with the goals and objectives of the organization. 

B. success cases that have been experienced in previous projects. 

C. best business practices. 

D. safeguards that are inherent in existing technology. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Organization maturity level for the protection of information is a clear alignment with goals and objectives of the organization. Experience in previous projects is dependent upon other business models which may not be applicable to the current model. Best business practices may not be applicable to the organization's business needs. Safeguards inherent to existing technology are low cost but may not address all business needs and/or goals of the organization. 

Q8. Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary? 

A. Policies 

B. Procedures 

C. Guidelines 

D. Standards 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary. 

Q9. The MOST important factor in ensuring the success of an information security program is effective: 

A. communication of information security requirements to all users in the organization. 

B. formulation of policies and procedures for information security. 

C. alignment with organizational goals and objectives . 

D. monitoring compliance with information security policies and procedures. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The success of security programs is dependent upon alignment with organizational goals and objectives. Communication is a secondary step. Effective communication and education of users is a critical determinant of success but alignment with organizational goals and objectives is the most important factor for success. Mere formulation of policies without effective communication to users will not ensure success. Monitoring compliance with information security policies and procedures can be, at best, a detective mechanism that will not lead to success in the midst of uninformed users. 

Q10. In order to highlight to management the importance of network security, the security manager should FIRST: 

A. develop a security architecture. 

B. install a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and prepare a list of attacks. 

C. develop a network security policy. 

D. conduct a risk assessment. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A risk assessment would be most helpful to management in understanding at a very high level the threats, probabilities and existing controls. Developing a security architecture, installing a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and preparing a list of attacks on the network and developing a network security policy would not be as effective in highlighting the importance to management and would follow only after performing a risk assessment. 

Q11. Which of the following represents the MAJOR focus of privacy regulations? 

A. Unrestricted data mining 

B. Identity theft 

C. Human rights protection D. 

D. Identifiable personal data 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Protection of identifiable personal data is the major focus of recent privacy regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Data mining is an accepted tool for ad hoc reporting; it could pose a threat to privacy only if it violates regulator)' provisions. Identity theft is a potential consequence of privacy violations but not the main focus of many regulations. Human rights addresses privacy issues but is not the main focus of regulations. 

Q12. Which of the following situations would MOST inhibit the effective implementation of security governance: 

A. The complexity of technology 

B. Budgetary constraints 

C. Conflicting business priorities 

D. High-level sponsorship 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The need for senior management involvement and support is a key success factor for the implementation of appropriate security governance. Complexity of technology, budgetary constraints and conflicting business priorities are realities that should be factored into the governance model of the organization, and should not be regarded as inhibitors. 

Q13. Which of the following is MOST important for a successful information security program? 

A. Adequate training on emerging security technologies 

B. Open communication with key process owners 

C. Adequate policies, standards and procedures 

D. Executive management commitment 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Sufficient executive management support is the most important factor for the success of an information security program. Open communication, adequate training, and good policies and procedures, while important, are not as important as support from top management; they will not ensure success if senior management support is not present. 

Q14. When configuring a biometric access control system that protects a high-security data center, the system's sensitivity level should be set: 

A. to u higher false reject rate (FRR). 

B. to a lower crossover error rate. 

C. to a higher false acceptance rate (FAR). 

D. exactly to the crossover error rate. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Biometric access control systems are not infallible. When tuning the solution, one has to adjust the sensitivity level to give preference either to false reject rate (type I error rate) where the system will be more prone to err denying access to a valid user or erring and allowing access to an invalid user. As the sensitivity of the biometric system is adjusted, these values change inversely. At one point, the two values intersect and are equal. This condition creates the crossover error rate, which is a measure of the system accuracy. In systems where the possibility of false rejects is a problem, it may be necessary' to reduce sensitivity and thereby increase the number of false accepts. This is sometimes referred to as equal error rate (EER). In a very sensitive system, it may be desirable to minimize the number of false accepts—the number of unauthorized persons allowed access. To do this, the system is tuned to be more sensitive, which causes the false rejects the number of authorized persons disallowed access to increase. 

Q15. Developing a successful business case for the acquisition of information security software products can BEST be assisted by: 

A. assessing the frequency of incidents. 

B. quantifying the cost of control failures. 

C. calculating return on investment (ROD projections. 

D. comparing spending against similar organizations. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Calculating the return on investment (ROD will most closely align security with the impact on the bottom line. Frequency and cost of incidents are factors that go into determining the impact on the business but, by themselves, are insufficient. Comparing spending against similar organizations can be problematic since similar organizations may have different business goals and appetites for risk. 

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