CISM Premium Bundle

CISM Premium Bundle

Certified Information Security Manager Certification Exam

4.5 
(28200 ratings)
0 QuestionsPractice Tests
0 PDFPrint version
November 15, 2024Last update

Isaca CISM Free Practice Questions

Q1. An organization has decided to implement additional security controls to treat the risks of a new process. This is an example of: 

A. eliminating the risk. 

B. transferring the risk. 

C. mitigating the risk. 

D. accepting the risk. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Risk can never be eliminated entirely. Transferring the risk gives it away such as buying insurance so the insurance company can take the risk. Implementing additional controls is an example of mitigating risk. Doing nothing to mitigate the risk would be an example of accepting risk. 

Q2. Which of the following risks would BEST be assessed using qualitative risk assessment techniques? 

A. Theft of purchased software 

B. Power outage lasting 24 hours 

C. Permanent decline in customer confidence 

D. Temporary loss of e-mail due to a virus attack 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A permanent decline in customer confidence does not lend itself well to measurement by quantitative techniques. Qualitative techniques are more effective in evaluating things such as customer loyalty and goodwill. Theft of software, power outages and temporary loss of e-mail can be quantified into monetary amounts easier than can be assessed with quantitative techniques. 

Q3. Which of the following roles would represent a conflict of interest for an information security manager? 

A. Evaluation of third parties requesting connectivity 

B. Assessment of the adequacy of disaster recovery plans 

C. Final approval of information security policies 

D. Monitoring adherence to physical security controls 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Since management is ultimately responsible for information security, it should approve information security policy statements; the information security manager should not have final approval. Evaluation of third parties requesting access, assessment of disaster recovery plans and monitoring of compliance with physical security controls are acceptable practices and do not present any conflicts of interest. 

Q4. An organization's information security processes are currently defined as ad hoc. In seeking to improve their performance level, the next step for the organization should be to: 

A. ensure that security processes are consistent across the organization. 

B. enforce baseline security levels across the organization. 

C. ensure that security processes are fully documented. 

D. implement monitoring of key performance indicators for security processes. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The organization first needs to move from ad hoc to repeatable processes. The organization then needs to document the processes and implement process monitoring and measurement. Baselining security levels will not necessarily assist in process improvement since baselining focuses primarily on control improvement. The organization needs to standardize processes both before documentation, and before monitoring and measurement. 

Q5. The chief information security officer (CISO) should ideally have a direct reporting relationship to the: 

A. head of internal audit. 

B. chief operations officer (COO). 

C. chief technology officer (CTO). 

D. legal counsel. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The chief information security officer (CISO) should ideally report to as high a level within the organization as possible. Among the choices given, the chief operations officer (COO) would have not only the appropriate level but also the knowledge of day-to-day operations. The head of internal audit and legal counsel would make good secondary choices, although they would not be as knowledgeable of the operations. Reporting to the chief technology officer (CTO) could become problematic as the CTO's goals for the infrastructure might, at times, run counter to the goals of information security. 

Q6. A risk management program would be expected to: 

A. remove all inherent risk. 

B. maintain residual risk at an acceptable level. 

C. implement preventive controls for every threat. 

D. reduce control risk to zero. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The object of risk management is to ensure that all residual risk is maintained at a level acceptable to the business; it is not intended to remove every identified risk or implement controls for every threat since this may not be cost-effective. Control risk, i.e., that a control may not be effective, is a component of the program but is unlikely to be reduced to zero. 

Q7. What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within an organization? 

A. Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets 

B. Deciding the classification levels applied to the organization's information assets 

C. Securing information assets in accordance with their classification 

D. Checking if information assets have been classified properly 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets is the primary role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within the organization. Choice B is incorrect because the final responsibility for deciding the classification levels rests with the data owners. Choice C is incorrect because the job of securing information assets is the responsibility of the data custodians. Choice D may be a role of an information security manager but is not the key role in this context. 

Q8. To ensure that payroll systems continue on in an event of a hurricane hitting a data center, what would be the FIRS T crucial step an information security manager would take in ensuring business continuity planning? 

A. Conducting a qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. 

B. Assigning value to the assets. 

C. Weighing the cost of implementing the plan vs. financial loss. 

D. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA). 

Answer:

Explanation: 

BIA is an essential component of an organization's business continuity plan; it includes an exploratory component to reveal any vulnerabilities and a planning component to develop strategies for minimizing risk. It is the first crucial step in business continuity planning. Qualitative and quantitative risk analysis will have been completed to define the dangers to individuals, businesses and government agencies posed by potential natural and human-caused adverse events. Assigning value to assets is part of the BIA process. Weighing the cost of implementing the plan vs. financial loss is another part of the BIA. 

Q9. Which of the following results from the risk assessment process would BEST assist risk management decision making? 

A. Control risk 

B. Inherent risk 

C. Risk exposure 

D. Residual risk 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Residual risk provides management with sufficient information to decide to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept. Control risk is the risk that a control may not succeed in preventing an undesirable event. Risk exposure is the likelihood of an undesirable event occurring. Inherent risk is an important factor to be considered during the risk assessment. 

Q10. Which of the following is MOST important in developing a security strategy? 

A. Creating a positive business security environment 

B. Understanding key business objectives 

C. Having a reporting line to senior management 

D. Allocating sufficient resources to information security 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Alignment with business strategy is of utmost importance. Understanding business objectives is critical in determining the security needs of the organization. 

Q11. Senior management commitment and support for information security can BEST be obtained through presentations that: 

A. use illustrative examples of successful attacks. 

B. explain the technical risks to the organization. 

C. evaluate the organization against best security practices. 

D. tie security risks to key business objectives. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Senior management seeks to understand the business justification for investing in security. This can best be accomplished by tying security to key business objectives. Senior management will not be as interested in technical risks or examples of successful attacks if they are not tied to the impact on business environment and objectives. Industry best practices are important to senior management but, again, senior management will give them the right level of importance when they are presented in terms of key business objectives. 

Q12. A risk assessment should be conducted: 

A. once a year for each business process and subprocess. 

B. every three to six months for critical business processes. 

C. by external parties to maintain objectivity. 

D. annually or whenever there is a significant change. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Risks are constantly changing. Choice D offers the best alternative because it takes into consideration a reasonable time frame and allows flexibility to address significant change. Conducting a risk assessment once a year is insufficient if important changes take place. Conducting a risk assessment every three-to-six months for critical processes may not be necessary, or it may not address important changes in a timely manner. It is not necessary for assessments to be performed by external parties. 

Q13. Who can BEST approve plans to implement an information security governance framework? 

A. Internal auditor 

B. Information security management 

C. Steering committee 

D. Infrastructure management 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Senior management that is part of the security steering committee is in the best position to approve plans to implement an information security governance framework. An internal auditor is secondary' to the authority and influence of senior management. Information security management should not have the authority to approve the security governance framework. Infrastructure management will not be in the best position since it focuses more on the technologies than on the business. 

Q14. The MOST effective way to incorporate risk management practices into existing production systems is through: 

A. policy development. 

B. change management. 

C. awareness training. 

D. regular monitoring. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Change is a process in which new risks can be introduced into business processes and systems. For this reason, risk management should be an integral component of the change management process. Policy development, awareness training and regular monitoring, although all worthwhile activities, are not as effective as change management. 

Q15. Which of the following should be included in an annual information security budget that is submitted for management approval? 

A. A cost-benefit analysis of budgeted resources 

B. All of the resources that are recommended by the business 

C. Total cost of ownership (TC'O) 

D. Baseline comparisons 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A brief explanation of the benefit of expenditures in the budget helps to convey the context of how the purchases that are being requested meet goals and objectives, which in turn helps build credibility for the information security function or program. Explanations of benefits also help engage senior management in the support of the information security program. While the budget should consider all inputs and recommendations that are received from the business, the budget that is ultimately submitted to management for approval should include only those elements that are intended for purchase. TC'O may be requested by management and may be provided in an addendum to a given purchase request, but is not usually included in an annual budget. Baseline comparisons (cost comparisons with other companies or industries) may be useful in developing a budget or providing justification in an internal review for an individual purchase, but would not be included with a request for budget approval. 

START CISM EXAM