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Q1. Without proper signal protection, embedded systems may be prone to which type of attack?
A. Brute force
B. Tampering
C. Information disclosure
D. Denial of Service (DoS)
Answer: C
Q2. Which of the following is the FIRST step of a penetration test plan?
A. Analyzing a network diagram of the target network
B. Notifying the company's customers
C. Obtaining the approval of the company's management
D. Scheduling the penetration test during a period of least impact
Answer: C
Q3. Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks?
A. Timing
B. Cold boot
C. Side channel
D. Acoustic cryptanalysis
Answer: B
Q4. Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data?
A. Immediately document the.finding and.report to senior management.
B. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server
C. Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management
D. Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team
Answer: A
Q5. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?
A. Implement full-disk encryption
B. Enable multifactor authentication
C. Deploy file integrity checkers
D. Disable use of portable devices
Answer: D
Q6. What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system?
A. Physical access to the electronic hardware
B. Regularly scheduled maintenance process
C. Availability of the network connection
D. Processing delays
Answer: A
Q7. The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are
A. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management
B. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
C. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology
Answer: A
Q8. Which of the following describes the BEST configuration management practice?
A. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to a separate back-up system and hashed to detect tampering.
B. After installing a new system, the configuration files are copied to an air-gapped system and hashed to detect tampering.
C. The firewall rules are backed up to an air-gapped system.
D. A baseline configuration is created and maintained for all relevant systems.
Answer: D
Q9. The MAIN reason an organization conducts a security authorization process is to
A. force the organization to make conscious risk decisions.
B. assure the effectiveness of security controls.
C. assure the correct security organization exists.
D. force the organization to enlist management support.
Answer: A
Q10. The BEST example of the concept of "something that a user has" when providing an authorized user access to a computing system is
A. the user's hand geometry.
B. a credential stored in a token.
C. a passphrase.
D. the user's face.
Answer: B
Q11. A system has been scanned for vulnerabilities and has been found to contain a number of communication ports that have been opened without authority. To which of the following might this system have been subjected?
A. Trojan horse
B. Denial of Service (DoS)
C. Spoofing
D. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
Answer: A
Q12. A large university needs to enable student.access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance and ease of deployment?
A. Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.
B. Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.
C. Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.
D. Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.
Answer: B
Q13. Which of the following roles has the obligation to ensure that a third party provider is capable of processing and handling data in a secure manner and meeting the standards set by the organization?
A. Data Custodian
B. Data Owner
C. Data Creator
D. Data User
Answer: B
Q14. What is the MOST effective countermeasure to a malicious code attack.against a.mobile system?
A. Sandbox
B. Change control
C. Memory management
D. Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: A
Q15. Refer.to the information below to answer the question.
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.
The security program can be considered effective when
A. vulnerabilities are proactively identified.
B. audits are regularly performed and reviewed.
C. backups are regularly performed and validated.
D. risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
Answer: D