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NEW QUESTION 1
You are concerned about rootkits on your network communicating with attackers outside your network. Without using an IDS how can you detect this sort of activity?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall logs will show all incoming and outgoing traffic. By examining those logs you can detect anomalous traffic, which can indicate the presence of malicious code such as rootkits. Answer B is incorrect. While an IDS might be the most obvious solution in this scenario, it is not the only one. Answer C is incorrect. It is very unlikely that anything in your domain controller logs will show the presence of a rootkit, unless that rootkit is on the domain controller itself. Answer A is incorrect. A DMZ is an excellent firewall configuration but will not aid in detecting rootkits.
NEW QUESTION 2
You want to monitor the network infrastructure of a software-based company. The network infrastructure of the company consists of the following: Windows TCP/IP services Web and mail servers URLs Applications (MS Exchange, SQL etc.) Which of the following network monitoring solutions can you use to accomplish the task?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Axence nVision is an advanced solution for a comprehensive network management. It is used to monitor network infrastructure such as Windows, TCP/IP services, web and mail servers, URLs, and applications (MS Exchange, SQL, etc.). It is also used to monitor routers and switches such as network traffic, interface status, and connected computers. It collects the network inventory and audit license usage. It also gives alerts in case of a program installation or any configuration change on a remote node. With the agent, an administrator can easily monitor user activities and can access computers remotely. Answer B is incorrect. CommandCenter NOC is a simple and effective tool that performs network monitoring with a powerful polling engine. It provides polling, Windows and UNIX/Linux server management, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanning, and traffic analysis in an integrated appliance. Answer D is incorrect. Cymphonix Network Composer is a precise Web gateway appliance. It is used to monitor Internet traffic by user, application, and threat. It consists of controls to shape access to Internet resources by user, group, and/or time of day. It also supports anonymous proxy blocking, policy management, and real time monitoring. Answer C is incorrect. Network Monitor (Netmon) is a protocol analyzer. It is used to analyze the network traffic. It is installed by default during the installation of the operating system. It can be installed by using Windows Components Wizard in the Add or Remove Programs tool in Control Panel. Network Monitor is used to perform the following tasks:
* 1. Capture frames directly from the network.
* 2. Display and filter captured frames immediately after capture or a later time.
* 3. Edit captured frames and transmit them on the network.
* 4. Capture frames from a remote computer.
NEW QUESTION 3
You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. For security issues, the company requires you to harden its routers. You therefore write the following code: Router#config terminal Router(config) #no ip bootp server Router(config) #no ip name- server Router(config) #no ntp server Router(config) #no snmp server Router(config) #no ip http server Router(config) #^Z Router# What services will be disabled by using this configuration fragment?
Answer: AD
Explanation:
The above configuration fragment will disable the following services from the router: The BootP service The DNS function The Network Time Protocol The Simple Network Management Protocol Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
NEW QUESTION 4
You have been assigned a project to develop a Web site for a construction company. You plan to develop a Web site and want to use cascading style sheets (CSS) as it helps you to get more control over the appearance and presentation of your Web pages and also extends your ability to precisely specify the position and appearance of the elements on a page and create special effects. You want to define styles for individual elements of a page. Which type of style sheet will you use?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cascading style sheets (CSS) are used so that the Web site authors can exercise greater control on the appearance and presentation of their Web pages. And also because they increase the ability to precisely point to the location and look of elements on a Web page and help in creating special effects. Cascading Style Sheets have codes, which are interpreteA, Dpplied by the browser on to the Web pages and their elements. There are three types of cascading style sheets. External Style Sheets Embedded Style Sheets Inline Style Sheets External Style Sheets are used whenever consistency in style is required throughout a Web site. A typical external style sheet uses a .css file extension, which can be edited using a text editor such as a Notepad. Embedded Style Sheets are used for defining styles for an active page. Inline Style Sheets are used for defining individual elements of a page. Reference: TechNet, Contents: Microsoft Knowledgebase, February 2000 issue PSS ID Number: Q179628
NEW QUESTION 5
Many organizations create network maps of their network system to visualize the network and understand the relationship between the end devices and the transport layer that provide services. Which of the following are the techniques used for network mapping by large organizations? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
Answer: ABC
Explanation:
Many organizations create network maps of their network system. These maps can be made manually using simple tools such as Microsoft Visio, or the mapping process can be simplified by using tools that integrate auto network discovery with Network mapping. Many of the vendors from the Notable network Mappers list enable a user to do the following: Customize the maps Include one's own labels Add un-discoverable items Add background images Sophisticated mapping is used to help visualize the network and understand relationships between end devices and the transport layers that provide service. Items such as bottlenecks and root cause analysis can be easier to spot using these tools. There are three main techniques used for network mapping: SNMP-based approaches, Active Probing, and Route analytics. The SNMP-based approach retrieves data from Router and Switch MIBs in order to build the network map. The Active Probing approach relies on a series of trace route like probe packets in order to build the network map. The Route analytics approach relies on information from the routing protocols to build the network map. Each of the three approaches has advantages and disadvantages in the methods that they use. Answer D is incorrect. Packet crafting is a technique that allows probing firewall rule-sets and finding entry points into the targeted system or network. This can be done with a packet generator. A packet generator is a type of software that generates random packets or allows the user to construct detailed custom packets. Packet generators utilize raw sockets. This is useful for testing implementations of IP stacks for bugs and security vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION 6
You are the Network Administrator for a company. You have decided to conduct a user access and rights review. Which of the following would be checked during such a review? (Choose three)
Answer: ACE
Explanation:
A user access and rights review must check all users, what groups they belong to, what roles they have, and what access they have. Furthermore, such a review should also check logs to see if users are appropriately utilizing their system rights and privileges.
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following controls define the direction and behavior required for technology to function properly?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pervasive IS controls are a subset of general controls that contains some extra definitions focusing on the management of monitoring a specific technology. A pervasive order or control determines the direction and behavior required for technology to function properly. The pervasive control permeates the area by using a greater depth of control integration over a wide area of influence. Answer B is incorrect. General controls are the parent class of controls that governs all areas of a business. An example of general controls includes the separation duties that prevent employees from writing their own paychecks and creating accurate job descriptions. General controls define the structure of an organization, establish HR policies, monitor workers and the work environment, as well as support budgeting, auditing, and reporting. Answer A is incorrect. Detailed IS controls are controls used for manipulating the on-going tasks in an organization. Some of the specific tasks require additional detailed controls to ensure that the workers perform their job correctly. These controls refer to some specific tasks or steps to be performed such as: The way system security parameters are set. How input data is verified before being accepted into an application. How to lock a user account after unsuccessful logon attempts. How the department handles acquisitions, security, delivery, implementation, and support of IS services. Answer C is incorrect. Application controls are embedded in programs. It constitutes the lowest subset in the control family. An activity should be filtered through the general controls, then the pervasive controls and detailed controls, before reaching the application controls level. Controls in the higher level category help in protecting the integrity of the applications and their data. The management is responsible to get applications tested prior to production through a recognized test method. The goal of this test is to provide a technical certificate that each system meets the requirement.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an attempt to give false information or to deny that a real event or transaction should have occurred?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A repudiation attack is an attempt to give false information or to deny that a real event or transaction should have occurred. Answer A is incorrect. In a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, an attacker uses multiple computers throughout the network that has been previously infected. Such computers act as zombies and work together to send out bogus messages, thereby increasing the amount of phony traffic. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track down and shut down. TFN, TRIN00, etc. are tools used for a DDoS attack. Answer C is incorrect. A replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system. In this type of attack, the attacker does not know the actual password, but can simply replay
the captured packet. Answer D is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks.
NEW QUESTION 9
John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the scenario, John will make the following entry in the syslog.conf file to forward all the kernel messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1: kern.* @192.168.0.1 Answer D is incorrect. This entry will forward all the messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer B is incorrect. This entry will not forward any message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Answer C is incorrect. This entry will not forward any kernel message to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1.
NEW QUESTION 10
Samantha works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is designing a Web site for the company. In a Web page, she uses the HTTP-EQUIV attribute to control the page cache. Which of the following HTTP-EQUIV values controls the page cache in the browser folder?
Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP-EQUIV is an attribute of the META tag. It sets or retrieves information used to bind the META tag's content to an HTTP response header. The pragma value of HTTP-EQUIV controls the page cache.
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following is an Internet mapping technique that relies on various BGP collectors that collect information such as routing updates and tables and provide this information publicly?
Answer: C
Explanation:
AS PATH Inference is one of the prominent techniques used for creating Internet maps. This technique relies on various BGP collectors that collect information such as routing updates and tables and provide this information publicly. Each BGP entry contains a Path Vector attribute called the AS Path. This path represents an autonomous system forwarding path from a given origin for a given set of prefixes. These paths can be used to infer AS-level connectivity and in turn be used to build AS topology graphs. However, these paths do not necessarily reflect how data is actually forwardeA, Ddjacencies between AS nodes only represent a policy relationship between them. A single AS link can in reality be several router links. It is also much harder to infer peering between two AS nodes, as these peering relationships are only propagated to an ISP's customer networks. Nevertheless, support for this type of mapping is increasing as more and more ISP's offer to peer with public route collectors such as Route-Views and RIPE. New toolsets are emerging such as Cyclops and NetViews that take advantage of a new experimental BGP collector BGPMon. NetViews can not only build topology maps in seconds but visualize topology changes moments after occurring at the actual router. Hence, routing dynamics can be visualized in real time. Answer B is incorrect. There is no such Internet mapping technique.
Answer D is incorrect. Firewalking is a technique for gathering information about a remote network protected by a firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique, an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. If the firewall allows this crafted packet through, it forwards the packet to the next hop. On the next hop, the packet expires and elicits an ICMP "TTL expired in transit" message to the attacker. If the firewall does not allow the traffic, there should be no response, or an ICMP "administratively prohibited" message should be returned to the attacker. A malicious attacker can use firewalking to determine the types of ports/protocols that can bypass the firewall. To use firewalking, the attacker needs the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall and the IP address of a host located behind the firewall. The main drawback of this technique is that if an administrator blocks ICMP packets from leaving the network, it is ineffective. Answer A is incorrect. Path MTU discovery (PMTUD) is a technique in computer networking for determining the maximum transmission unit (MTU) size on the network path between two Internet Protocol (IP) hosts, usually with the goal of avoiding IP fragmentation. Path MTU discovery works by setting the DF (Don't Fragment) option bit in the IP headers of outgoing packets. Then, any device along the path whose MTU is smaller than the packet will drop it, and send back an ICMP "Fragmentation Needed" (Type 3, Code 4) message containing its MTU, allowing the source host to reduce its path MTU appropriately. The process repeats until the MTU is small enough to traverse the entire path without fragmentation. If the path MTU changes after the connection is set up and is lower than the previously determined path MTU, the first large packet will cause an ICMP error and the new, lower path MTU will be found. Conversely, if PMTUD finds that the path allows a larger MTU than what is possible on the lower link, the OS will periodically reprobe to see if the path has changed and now allows larger packets. On Linux this timer is set by default to ten minutes.
NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands can be used to format text files?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The pr command is used to format text files according to the specified options. This command is usually used to paginate or columnate files for printing. Answer B is incorrect. The ps command reports the status of processes that are currently running on a Linux computer. Answer A is incorrect. The wc command is used to count the number of bytes, words, and lines in a given file or in the list of files. Answer C is incorrect. The tail command is used to display the last few lines of a text file or piped data.
NEW QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the most secure place to host a server that will be accessed publicly through the Internet?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is the most secure place to host a server that will be accessed publicly through the Internet. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security. Answer B is incorrect. Hosting a server on the intranet for public access will not be good from a security point of view.
NEW QUESTION 14
What does a firewall check to prevent certain ports and applications from getting the packets into an Enterprise?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall stops delivery of packets that are not marked safe by the Network Administrator. It checks the transport layer port numbers and the application layer headers to prevent certain ports and applications from getting the packets into an Enterprise. Answer A, C, D are incorrect. These information are not checked by a firewall.
NEW QUESTION 15
You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Linux-based network. You need to configure a firewall for the company. The firewall should be able to keep track of the state of network connections traveling across the network. Which of the following types of firewalls will you configure to accomplish the task?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A stateful firewall is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. The firewall is programmed to distinguish legitimate packets for different types of connections. Only packets matching a known connection state will be allowed by the firewall; others will be rejected. Answer B is incorrect. A host-based application firewall can monitor any application input, output, and/or system service calls made from, to, or by an application. This is done by examining information passed through system calls instead of, or in addition to, a network stack. A host-based application firewall can only provide protection to the applications running on the same host. An example of a host-based application firewall that controls system service calls by an application is AppArmor or the Mac OS X application firewall. Host-based application firewalls may also provide network-based application firewalling. Answer A is incorrect. A network-based application layer firewall, also known as a proxy-based or reverse-proxy firewall, is a computer networking firewall that operates at the application layer of a protocol stack. Application firewalls specific to a particular kind of network traffic may be titled with the service name, such as a Web application firewall. They may be implemented through software running on a host or a stand-alone piece of network hardware. Often, it is a host using various forms of proxy servers to proxy traffic before passing it on to the client or server. Because it acts on the application layer, it may inspect the contents of the traffic, blocking specified content, such as certain websites, viruses, and attempts to exploit known logical flaws in client software. Answer C is incorrect. An application firewall is a form of firewall that controls input, output, and/or access from, to, or by an application or service. It operates by monitoring and potentially blocking the input, output, or system service calls that do not meet the configured policy of the firewall. The application firewall is typically built to monitor one or more specific applications or services (such as a web or database service), unlike a stateful network firewall, which can provide some access controls for nearly any kind of network traffic. There are two primary categories of application firewalls: Network-based application firewalls Host-based application firewalls
NEW QUESTION 16
John used to work as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. Now he has resigned from the company for personal reasons. He wants to send out some secret information of the company. To do so, he takes an image file and simply uses a tool image hide and embeds the secret file within an image file of the famous actress, Jennifer Lopez, and sends it to his Yahoo mail id. Since he is using the image file to send the data, the mail server of his company is unable to filter this mail. Which of the following techniques is he performing to accomplish his task?
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the scenario, John is performing the Steganography technique for sending malicious data. Steganography is an art and science of hiding information by embedding harmful messages within other seemingly harmless messages. It works by replacing bits of unused data, such as graphics, sound, text, and HTML, with bits of invisible information in regular computer files. This hidden information can be in the form of plain text, cipher text, or even in the form of images. Answer A is incorrect. Web ripping is
a technique in which the attacker copies the whole structure of a Web site to the local disk and obtains all files of the Web site. Web ripping helps an attacker to trace the loopholes of the Web site. Answer D is incorrect. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user's computer or network. This method involves mental ability of the people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name or password, computer name, IP address, employee ID, or other information that can be misused. Answer C is incorrect. John is not performing email spoofing. In email spoofing, an attacker sends emails after writing another person's mailing address in the from field of the email id.
NEW QUESTION 17
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He successfully performs a brute force attack on the We-are-secure server. Now, he suggests some countermeasures to avoid such brute force attacks on the We-are-secure server. Which of the following are countermeasures against a brute force attack?
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Using CAPTCHA or restricting the number of login attempts are good countermeasures against a brute force attack.
NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following techniques can be used to determine the network ranges of any network?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whois queries are used to determine the IP address ranges associated with clients. A whois query can be run on most UNIX environments. In a Windows environment, the tools such as WsPingPro and Sam Spade can be used to perform whois queries. Whois queries can also be executed over the Web from www.arin.net and www.networksolutions.com. Answer B is incorrect. A SQL injection attack is a process in which an attacker tries to execute unauthorized SQL statements. These statements can be used to delete data from a database, delete database objects such as tables, views, stored procedures, etc. An attacker can either directly enter the code into input variables or insert malicious code in strings that can be stored in a database. For example, the following line of code illustrates one form of SQL injection attack: query = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE name = '" + userName + "';" This SQL code is designed to fetch the records of any specified username from its table of users. However, if the "userName" variable is crafted in a specific way by a malicious hacker, the SQL statement may do more than the code author intended. For example, if the attacker puts the "userName" value as ' or ''=', the SQL statement will now be as follows: SELECT * FROM users WHERE name = '' OR ''=''; Answer D is incorrect. Web ripping is a technique in which the attacker copies the whole structure of a Web site to the local disk and obtains all files of the Web site. Web ripping helps an attacker to trace the loopholes of the Web site. Answer C is incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications. Sometimes, organizations also snoop their employees legitimately to monitor their use of organizations' computers and track Internet usage.
NEW QUESTION 19
John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the scenario, John will use the netstat -an command to accomplish the task. The netstat -an command is used to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the numerical form. The netstat command displays
protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer A is incorrect. The netstat -e command displays the Ethernet information. Answer B is incorrect. The netstat -r command displays the routing table information. Answer C is incorrect. The netstat -s command displays per-protocol statistics. By default, statistics are shown for TCP, UDP and IP.
NEW QUESTION 20
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