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Q1. What is a valid option when using the ping command?
A. packet loss B. packet size
C. CRC
D. TCP port
Answer: B
Q2. Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B. Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C. Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D. Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.
Answer: D
Q3. Which two commands may be used when configuring an IP address for a Gigabit Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 address 10.1.1.1/24
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
C. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address 10.1.1.1/24
D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 address 10.1.1.1/24
Answer: B,C
Q4. Which statement is true regarding an Ethernet collision domain?
A. If a router is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the router.
B. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub.
C. If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch.
D. If a bridge is used, the collision domain includes all devices connected to the bridge.
Answer: C
Q5. You have been asked to develop an application that uses only connection-oriented protocols.
Which two protocols can you use? (Choose two.)
A. PPP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: A,C
Q6. A network administrator would like to view detailed interface status, properties, statistics, errors, and CoS packet counters.
Which operational command will display this information?
A. show interfaces extensive
B. show interfaces
C. show configuration interfaces
D. show interface status
Answer: A
Q7. You have received a default route through BGP from your ISP and you want to redistribute it into OSPF.
Which method will accomplish this?
A. Apply an export policy to OSPF that exports the default route.
B. Apply an import policy to OSPF that imports the default route.
C. Apply the default-network command to OSPF.
D. Apply the redistribute-igp command to BGP.
Answer: A
Q8. By default, what are three valid routing tables? (Choose three.)
A. inet.0
B. inet4.0
C. inet.6
D. inet6.0
E. inet.3
Answer: A,D,E
Q9. When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed?
A. snoop
B. tcpdump
C. monitor
D. tail
Answer: B
Q10. Which two statements are true regarding the role of the Routing Engine (RE)? (Choose two.)
A. The RE controls and monitors the chassis.
B. The RE manages the Packet Forwarding Engine (PFE).
C. The RE receives a copy of the forwarding table from the forwarding plane.
D. The RE implements class of service (COS).
Answer: A,B
Q11. Which command would you use to view interface usage details in real time?
A. show interfaces terse
B. show interfaces extensive
C. monitor interface traffic
D. monitor traffic interface
Answer: C
Q12. You have been asked to configure your router to send link-related SNMP trap notifications to the network management system (NMS) located at address 172.16.17.1.
Which two commands are required? (Choose two.)
A. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group targets 172.16.17.1
B. set snmp targets 172.16.17.1
C. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status
D. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories link
Answer: A,D
Q13. You must segment your internal /24 network into a minimum of 12 subnets, each containing a minimum of 12 hosts.
Which network mask do you use?
A. /26
B. /27
C. /28
D. /29
Answer: C
Q14. When using keyboard shortcuts, which keystroke combination allows users to erase a single word to the left of the cursor?
A. Ctrl + a
B. Ctrl + e
C. Ctrl + u
D. Ctrl + w
Answer: D
Q15. Which operational command would you use to quickly verify the state of all interfaces?
A. show interfaces terse
B. show interfaces
C. show configuration interfaces
D. show interface status
Answer: A