SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

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CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL? 

PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80 

PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443 

A. It implements stateful packet filtering. 

B. It implements bottom-up processing. 

C. It failed closed. 

D. It implements an implicit deny. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present. 

Q2. A hospital IT department wanted to secure its doctor’s tablets. The IT department wants operating system level security and the ability to secure the data from alteration. Which of the following methods would MOST likely work? 

A. Cloud storage 

B. Removal Media 

C. TPM 

D. Wiping 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. 

Q3. After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device’s user reports being unable to connect to the network: 

PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37 

DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB 

Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting? 

A. WPA2-PSK requires a supplicant on the mobile device. 

B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device. 

C. TCP/IP Port filtering has been implemented on the SOHO router. 

D. IP address filtering has disabled the device from connecting. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address. 

Q4. Ann, an employee, is cleaning out her desk and disposes of paperwork containing confidential customer information in a recycle bin without shredding it first. This is MOST likely to increase the risk of loss from which of the following attacks? 

A. Shoulder surfing 

B. Dumpster diving 

C. Tailgating 

D. Spoofing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Dumpster diving is looking for treasure in someone else's trash. (A dumpster is a large trash container.) In the world of information technology, dumpster diving is a technique used to retrieve information that could be used to carry out an attack on a computer network. Dumpster diving isn't limited to searching through the trash for obvious treasures like access codes or passwords written down on sticky notes. Seemingly innocent information like a phone list, calendar, or organizational chart can be used to assist an attacker using social engineering techniques to gain access to the network. To prevent dumpster divers from learning anything valuable from your trash, experts recommend that your company establish a disposal policy where all paper, including print-outs, is shredded in a cross-cut shredder before being recycled, all storage media is erased, and all staff is educated about the danger of untracked trash. 

Q5. Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO). 

A. Virtual switch 

B. NAT 

C. System partitioning 

D. Access-list 

E. Disable spanning tree 

F. VLAN 

Answer: A,F 

Explanation: 

A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question. 

Q6. Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic? 

A. Sniffer 

B. Router 

C. Firewall 

D. Switch 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Ip tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores. 

Q7. Which of the following is the BEST method for ensuring all files and folders are encrypted on all corporate laptops where the file structures are unknown? 

A. Folder encryption 

B. File encryption 

C. Whole disk encryption 

D. Steganography 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the hard drive of the device or on a removable drive. This feature ensures that the data on the device or removable drive cannot be accessed in a useable form should it be stolen. Furthermore, full-disk encryption is not dependant on knowledge of the file structure. 

Q8. A company has two server administrators that work overnight to apply patches to minimize disruption to the company. With the limited working staff, a security engineer performs a risk assessment to ensure the protection controls are in place to monitor all assets including the administrators in case of an emergency. Which of the following should be in place? 

A. NIDS 

B. CCTV 

C. Firewall 

D. NIPS 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q9. A network engineer is designing a secure tunneled VPN. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure? 

A. IPsec 

B. SFTP 

C. BGP 

D. PPTP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) came about through a partnership between Cisco and Microsoft with the intention of providing a more secure VPN protocol. L2TP is considered to be a more secure option than PPTP, as the IPSec protocol which holds more secure encryption algorithms, is utilized in conjunction with it. It also requires a pre-shared certificate or key. L2TP’s strongest level of encryption makes use of 168 bit keys, 3 DES encryption algorithm and requires two levels of authentication. L2TP has a number of advantages in comparison to PPTP in terms of providing data integrity and authentication of origin verification designed to keep hackers from compromising the system. However, the increased overhead required to manage this elevated security means that it performs at a slower pace than PPTP. 

Q10. A new client application developer wants to ensure that the encrypted passwords that are stored in their database are secure from cracking attempts. To implement this, the developer implements a function on the client application that hashes passwords thousands of times prior to being sent to the database. Which of the following did the developer MOST likely implement? 

A. RIPEMD 

B. PBKDF2 

C. HMAC 

D. ECDHE 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q11. Which of the following can be used to mitigate risk if a mobile device is lost? 

A. Cable lock 

B. Transport encryption 

C. Voice encryption 

D. Strong passwords 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Passwords are the most likely mechanism that can be used to mitigate risk when a mobile device is lost. A strong password would be more difficult to crack. 

Q12. TION NO: 134 

Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default? 

A. 23 

B. 32 

C. 12 

D. 22 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22. 

Q13. A hacker has discovered a simple way to disrupt business for the day in a small company which relies on staff working remotely. In a matter of minutes the hacker was able to deny remotely working staff access to company systems with a script. Which of the following security controls is the hacker exploiting? 

A. DoS 

B. Account lockout 

C. Password recovery 

D. Password complexity 

Answer:

Explanation: 

B: Account lockout automatically disables an account due to repeated failed log on attempts. The hacker must have executed a script to repeatedly try logging on to the remote accounts, forcing the account lockout policy to activate. 

Q14. Ann is an employee in the accounting department and would like to work on files from her home computer. She recently heard about a new personal cloud storage service with an easy web interface. Before uploading her work related files into the cloud for access, which of the following is the MOST important security concern Ann should be aware of? 

A. Size of the files 

B. Availability of the files 

C. Accessibility of the files from her mobile device 

D. Sensitivity of the files 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q15. Which of the following allows lower level domains to access resources in a separate Public Key Infrastructure? 

A. Trust Model 

B. Recovery Agent 

C. Public Key 

D. Private Key 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In a bridge trust model allows lower level domains to access resources in a separate PKI through the root CA. A trust Model is collection of rules that informs application on how to decide the legitimacy of a 

Digital Certificate. 

In a bridge trust model, a peer-to-peer relationship exists among the root CAs. The root CAs can 

communicate with one another, allowing cross certification. This arrangement allows a certification 

process to be established between organizations or departments. 

Each intermediate CA trusts only the CAs above and below it, but the CA structure can be 

expanded without creating additional layers of CAs.