SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

4.5 
(28755 ratings)
0 QuestionsPractice Tests
0 PDFPrint version
November 21, 2024Last update

CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring? 

A. Smurf Attack 

B. Man in the middle 

C. Backdoor 

D. Replay 

E. Spear Phishing 

F. Xmas Attack 

G. Blue Jacking 

H. Ping of Death 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The exhibit shows that all the computers on the network are being ‘pinged’. This indicates that the ping request was sent to the network broadcast address. We can also see that all the replies were received by one (probably with a spoofed address) host on the network. This is typical of a smurf attack. 

A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network. 

Q2. A technician wants to verify the authenticity of the system files of a potentially compromised system. Which of the following can the technician use to verify if a system file was compromised? (Select TWO). 

A. AES 

B. PGP 

C. SHA 

D. MD5 

E. ECDHE 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

Q3. After viewing wireless traffic, an attacker notices the following networks are being broadcasted by local access points: 

Corpnet Coffeeshop 

FreePublicWifi 

Using this information the attacker spoofs a response to make nearby laptops connect back to a malicious device. Which of the following has the attacker created? 

A. Infrastructure as a Service 

B. Load balancer 

C. Evil twin 

D. Virtualized network 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In this question, the attacker has created another wireless network that is impersonating one of more of the three wireless networks listed in the question. This is known as an Evil Twin. An evil twin, in the context of network security, is a rogue or fake wireless access point (WAP) that appears as a genuine hotspot offered by a legitimate provider. In an evil twin attack, an eavesdropper or hacker fraudulently creates this rogue hotspot to collect the personal data of unsuspecting users. Sensitive data can be stolen by spying on a connection or using a phishing technique. For example, a hacker using an evil twin exploit may be positioned near an authentic Wi-Fi access point and discover the service set identifier (SSID) and frequency. The hacker may then send a radio signal using the exact same frequency and SSID. To end users, the rogue evil twin appears as their legitimate hotspot with the same name. In wireless transmissions, evil twins are not a new phenomenon. Historically, they were known as honeypots or base station clones. With the advancement of wireless technology and the use of wireless devices in public areas, it is very easy for novice users to set up evil twin exploits. 

Q4. The chief Risk officer is concerned about the new employee BYOD device policy and has requested the security department implement mobile security controls to protect corporate data in the event that a device is lost or stolen. The level of protection must not be compromised even if the communication SIM is removed from the device. Which of the following BEST meets the requirements? (Select TWO) 

A. Asset tracking 

B. Screen-locks 

C. GEO-Tracking 

D. Device encryption 

Answer: A,D 

Explanation: 

A: Asset tracking is the process of maintaining oversight over inventory, and ensuring that a device is still in the possession of the assigned authorized user. 

D: Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen. 

Q5. A network administrator has purchased two devices that will act as failovers for each other. Which of the following concepts does this BEST illustrate? 

A. Authentication 

B. Integrity 

C. Confidentiality 

D. Availability 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Failover refers to the process of reconstructing a system or switching over to other systems when a failure is detected. In the case of a server, the server switches to a redundant server when a fault is detected. This strategy allows service to continue uninterrupted until the primary server can be restored. In the case of a network, this means processing switches to another network path in the event of a network failure in the primary path. This means availability. 

Q6. A security administrator is reviewing the below output from a password auditing tool: 

P@ss. 

@pW1. 

S3cU4 

Which of the following additional policies should be implemented based on the tool’s output? 

A. Password age 

B. Password history 

C. Password length 

D. Password complexity 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The output shows that all the passwords are either 4 or 5 characters long. This is way too short, 8 characters are shown to be the minimum for password length. 

Q7. Ann, a security technician, is reviewing the IDS log files. She notices a large number of alerts for multicast packets from the switches on the network. After investigation, she discovers that this is normal activity for her network. Which of the following BEST describes these results? 

A. True negatives 

B. True positives 

C. False positives 

D. False negatives 

Answer:

Explanation: 

False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. 

Q8. How often, at a MINIMUM, should Sara, an administrator, review the accesses and rights of the users on her system? 

A. Annually 

B. Immediately after an employee is terminated 

C. Every five years 

D. Every time they patch the server 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Reviewing the accesses and rights of the users on a system at least annually is acceptable practice. More frequently would be desirable but too frequently would be a waste of administrative time. 

Q9. An internal audit has detected that a number of archived tapes are missing from secured storage. There was no recent need for restoration of data from the missing tapes. The location is monitored by access control and CCTV systems. Review of the CCTV system indicates that it has not been recording for three months. The access control system shows numerous valid entries into the storage location during that time. The last audit was six months ago and the tapes were accounted for at that time. Which of the following could have aided the investigation? 

A. Testing controls 

B. Risk assessment 

C. Signed AUP 

D. Routine audits 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q10. Which of the following protocols uses TCP instead of UDP and is incompatible with all previous versions? 

A. TACACS 

B. XTACACS 

C. RADIUS 

D. TACACS+ 

Answer:

Explanation: 

TACACS+ is not compatible with TACACS and XTACACS, and makes use of TCP. 

Q11. A user has unknowingly gone to a fraudulent site. The security analyst notices the following system change on the user’s host: 

Old `hosts’ file: 

127.0.0.1 localhost 

New `hosts’ file: 

127.0.0.1 localhost 

5.5.5.5 www.comptia.com 

Which of the following attacks has taken place? 

A. Spear phishing 

B. Pharming 

C. Phishing 

D. Vishing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

We can see in this question that a fraudulent entry has been added to the user’s hosts file. This will point the URL: www.comptia.com to 5.5.5.5 instead of the correct IP address. Similar in nature to e-mail phishing, pharming seeks to obtain personal or private (usually financial related) information through domain spoofing. Rather than being spammed with malicious and mischievous e-mail requests for you to visit spoof Web sites which appear legitimate, pharming 'poisons' a DNS server (or hosts file) by infusing false information into the DNS server, resulting in a user's request being redirected elsewhere. Your browser, however will show you are at the correct Web site, which makes pharming a bit more serious and more difficult to detect. Phishing attempts to scam people one at a time with an e-mail while pharming allows the scammers to target large groups of people at one time through domain spoofing. 

Q12. An organization is implementing a password management application which requires that all local administrator passwords be stored and automatically managed. Auditors will be responsible for monitoring activities in the application by reviewing the logs. Which of the following security controls is the BEST option to prevent auditors from accessing or modifying passwords in the application? 

A. Time of day restrictions 

B. Create user accounts for the auditors and assign read-only access 

C. Mandatory access control 

D. Role-based access with read-only 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q13. The server administrator has noted that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment? 

A. The administrator will need to deploy load balancing and clustering. 

B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. 

C. The administrator will not be able to add a test virtual environment in the data center. 

D. Servers will encounter latency and lowered throughput issues. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Migrating to a virtual server environment reduces cost by eliminating the need to purchase, manage, maintain and power physical machines. The fewer physical machines you have, the less money it costs. 

Q14. Mandatory vacations are a security control which can be used to uncover which of the following? 

A. Fraud committed by a system administrator 

B. Poor password security among users 

C. The need for additional security staff 

D. Software vulnerabilities in vendor code 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Mandatory vacations also provide an opportunity to discover fraud apart from the obvious benefits of giving employees a chance to refresh and making sure that others in the company can fill those positions and make the company less dependent on those persons; a sort pf replication and duplication at all levels. 

Q15. The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this? 

A. Disable the SSID broadcasting 

B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used 

C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points 

D. Lower the power for office coverage only 

Answer:

Explanation: 

On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.