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Q1. An internal auditor is concerned with privilege creep that is associated with transfers inside the company. Which mitigation measure would detect and correct this?
A. User rights reviews
B. Least privilege and job rotation
C. Change management
D. Change Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
A privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of an organization. This means that a user rights review will reveal whether user accounts have been assigned according to their ‘new’ job descriptions , or if there are privilege creep culprits after transfers has occurred.
Q2. Ann has taken over as the new head of the IT department. One of her first assignments was to implement AAA in preparation for the company’s new telecommuting policy. When she takes inventory of the organizations existing network infrastructure, she makes note that it is a mix of several different vendors. Ann knows she needs a method of secure centralized access to the company’s network resources. Which of the following is the BEST service for Ann to implement?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. TACACS+
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) networking protocol offers centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who make use of a network service.
Q3. Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL?
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80
PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443
A. It implements stateful packet filtering.
B. It implements bottom-up processing.
C. It failed closed.
D. It implements an implicit deny.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn’t present.
Q4. A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. Thus the actual switch configuration should first be subject to the change management approval.
Q5. A network stream needs to be encrypted. Sara, the network administrator, has selected a cipher which will encrypt 8 bits at a time before sending the data across the network. Which of the following has Sara selected?
A. Block cipher
B. Stream cipher
C. CRC
D. Hashing algorithm
Answer: A
Explanation:
With a block cipher the algorithm works on chunks of data—encrypting one and then moving to the
next.
Example: Blowfish is an encryption system that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very fast speeds.
Q6. A security administrator needs to image a large hard drive for forensic analysis. Which of the following will allow for faster imaging to a second hard drive?
A. cp /dev/sda /dev/sdb bs=8k
B. tail -f /dev/sda > /dev/sdb bs=8k
C. dd in=/dev/sda out=/dev/sdb bs=4k
D. locate /dev/sda /dev/sdb bs=4k
Answer: C
Explanation:
dd is a command-line utility for Unix and Unix-like operating systems whose primary purpose is to convert and copy files. dd can duplicate data across files, devices, partitions and volumes On Unix, device drivers for hardware (such as hard disks) and special device files (such as /dev/zero and /dev/random) appear in the file system just like normal files; dd can also read and/or write from/to these files, provided that function is implemented in their respective driver. As a result, dd can be used for tasks such as backing up the boot sector of a hard drive, and obtaining a fixed amount of random data. The dd program can also perform conversions on the data as it is copied, including byte order swapping and conversion to and from the ASCII and EBCDIC text encodings. An attempt to copy the entire disk using cp may omit the final block if it is of an unexpected length; whereas dd may succeed. The source and destination disks should have the same size.
Q7. Which of the following authentication services requires the use of a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) server in order to complete the authentication process?
A. TACACS+
B. Secure LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
Answer: D
Explanation:
The basic process of Kerberos authentication is as follows:
The subject provides logon credentials.
The Kerberos client system encrypts the password and transmits the protected credentials to the
KDC.
The KDC verifies the credentials and then creates a ticket-granting ticket (TGT—a hashed form of
the subject’s password with the addition of a time stamp that indicates a valid lifetime). The TGT is
encrypted and sent to the client.
The client receives the TGT. At this point, the subject is an authenticated principle in the Kerberos
realm.
The subject requests access to resources on a network server. This causes the client to request a
service ticket (ST) from the KDC.
The KDC verifies that the client has a valid TGT and then issues an ST to the client. The ST
includes a time stamp that indicates its valid lifetime.
The client receives the ST.
The client sends the ST to the network server that hosts the desired resource.
The network server verifies the ST. If it’s verified, it initiates a communication session with the
client. From this point forward, Kerberos is no longer involved.
Q8. During which of the following phases of the Incident Response process should a security administrator define and implement general defense against malware?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Preparation
C. Eradication
D. Identification
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. It is important to stop malware before it ever gets hold of a system –thus you should know which malware is out there and take defensive measures - this means preparation to guard against malware infection should be done.
Q9. A network administrator has a separate user account with rights to the domain administrator group. However, they cannot remember the password to this account and are not able to login to the server when needed. Which of the following is MOST accurate in describing the type of issue the administrator is experiencing?
A. Single sign-on
B. Authorization
C. Access control
D. Authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Authentication generally requires one or more of the following:
.
Something you know: a password, code, PIN, combination, or secret phrase.
.
Something you have: a smart card, token device, or key.
.
Something you are: a fingerprint, a retina scan, or voice recognition; often referred to as biometrics, discussed later in this chapter.
.
Somewhere you are: a physical or logical location.
.
Something you do: typing rhythm, a secret handshake, or a private knock.
Q10. Which of the following can be used on a smartphone to BEST protect against sensitive data loss if the device is stolen? (Select TWO).
A. Tethering
B. Screen lock PIN
C. Remote wipe
D. Email password
E. GPS tracking
F. Device encryption
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
C: Remote wipe is the process of deleting data on a device in the event that the device is stolen. This is performed over remote connections such as the mobile phone service or the internet connection and helps ensure that sensitive data is not accessed by unauthorized people.
F: Device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.
Q11. Public keys are used for which of the following?
A. Decrypting wireless messages
B. Decrypting the hash of an electronic signature
C. Bulk encryption of IP based email traffic
D. Encrypting web browser traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
The sender uses the private key to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. The sender then sends the message to the receiver. The receiver uses the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, the receiver knows the message is authentic.
Q12. Which of the following is a control that allows a mobile application to access and manipulate information which should only be available by another application on the same mobile device (e.g. a music application posting the name of the current song playing on the device on a social media site)?
A. Co-hosted application
B. Transitive trust
C. Mutually exclusive access
D. Dual authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q13. An employee recently lost a USB drive containing confidential customer data. Which of the following controls could be utilized to minimize the risk involved with the use of USB drives?
A. DLP
B. Asset tracking
C. HSM
D. Access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.
Q14. An organization has three divisions: Accounting, Sales, and Human Resources. Users in the Accounting division require access to a server in the Sales division, but no users in the Human Resources division should have access to resources in any other division, nor should any users in the Sales division have access to resources in the Accounting division. Which of the following network segmentation schemas would BEST meet this objective?
A. Create two VLANS, one for Accounting and Sales, and one for Human Resources.
B. Create one VLAN for the entire organization.
C. Create two VLANs, one for Sales and Human Resources, and one for Accounting.
D. Create three separate VLANS, one for each division.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q15. Which of the following is BEST carried out immediately after a security breach is discovered?
A. Risk transference
B. Access control revalidation
C. Change management
D. Incident management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incident management is the steps followed when security incident occurs.