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Q1. Highly sensitive data is stored in a database and is accessed by an application on a DMZ server. The disk drives on all servers are fully encrypted. Communication between the application server and end-users is also encrypted. Network ACLs prevent any connections to the database server except from the application server. Which of the following can still result in exposure of the sensitive data in the database server?
A. SQL Injection
B. Theft of the physical database server
C. Cookies
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question discusses a very secure environment with disk and transport level encryption and access control lists restricting access. SQL data in a database is accessed by SQL queries from an application on the application server. The data can still be compromised by a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q2. A company executive's laptop was compromised, leading to a security breach. The laptop was placed into storage by a junior system administrator and was subsequently wiped and re-imaged. When it was determined that the authorities would need to be involved, there was little evidence to present to the investigators. Which of the following procedures could have been implemented to aid the authorities in their investigation?
A. A comparison should have been created from the original system's file hashes
B. Witness testimony should have been taken by the administrator
C. The company should have established a chain of custody tracking the laptop
D. A system image should have been created and stored
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q3. NO: 93
Multi-tenancy is a concept found in which of the following?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Removable media
C. Cloud computing
D. Data loss prevention
Answer: C
Explanation:
One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This “multitenant” nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.
Q4. At an organization, unauthorized users have been accessing network resources via unused network wall jacks. Which of the following would be used to stop unauthorized access?
A. Configure an access list.
B. Configure spanning tree protocol.
C. Configure port security.
D. Configure loop protection.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port security in IT can mean several things. It can mean the physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. This can be accomplished by locking down the wiring closet and server vaults and then disconnecting the workstation run from the patch panel (or punch-down block) that leads to a room’s wall jack. Any unneeded or unused wall jacks can (and should) be physically disabled in this manner. Another option is to use a smart patch panel that can monitor the MAC address of any device connected to each and every wall port across a building and detect not just when a new device is connected to an empty port, but also when a valid device is disconnected or replaced by an invalid device.
Q5. Which of the following data security techniques will allow Matt, an IT security technician, to encrypt a system with speed as its primary consideration?
A. Hard drive encryption
B. Infrastructure as a service
C. Software based encryption
D. Data loss prevention
Answer: A
Explanation:
Disk and device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen. It should be implemented using a hardware-based solution for greater speed.
Q6. Joe, a user, wants to protect sensitive information stored on his hard drive. He uses a program that encrypted the whole hard drive. Once the hard drive is fully encrypted, he uses the same program to create a hidden volume within the encrypted hard drive and stores the sensitive information within the hidden volume. This is an example of which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Multi-pass encryption
B. Transport encryption
C. Plausible deniability
D. Steganography
E. Transitive encryption
F. Trust models
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Q7. A systems administrator has implemented PKI on a classified government network. In the event that a disconnect occurs from the primary CA, which of the following should be accessible locally from every site to ensure users with bad certificates cannot gain access to the network?
A. A CRL
B. Make the RA available
C. A verification authority
D. A redundant CA
Answer: A
Explanation:
A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or
key.
By checking the CRL you can check if a particular certificate has been revoked.
Q8. Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete’s access to this site?
A. Internet content filter
B. Firewall
C. Proxy server
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, especially when utilised to restrict material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.
Q9. Users report that after downloading several applications, their systems’ performance has noticeably decreased. Which of the following would be used to validate programs prior to installing them?
A. Whole disk encryption
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. MD5
Answer: D
Explanation:
MD5 can be used to locate the data which has changed.
The Message Digest Algorithm (MD) creates a hash value and uses a one-way hash. The hash
value is used to help maintain integrity. There are several versions of MD; the most common are
MD5, MD4, and MD2.
Q10. When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability.
Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Answer: C
Explanation:
A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of signatures.
Q11. Which of the following, if properly implemented, would prevent users from accessing files that are unrelated to their job duties? (Select TWO).
A. Separation of duties
B. Job rotation
C. Mandatory vacation
D. Time of day restrictions
E. Least privilege
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q12. Ann, the network administrator, has learned from the helpdesk that employees are accessing the wireless network without entering their domain credentials upon connection. Once the connection is made, they cannot reach any internal resources, while wired network connections operate smoothly. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. A user has plugged in a personal access point at their desk to connect to the network wirelessly.
B. The company is currently experiencing an attack on their internal DNS servers.
C. The company’s WEP encryption has been compromised and WPA2 needs to be implemented instead.
D. An attacker has installed an access point nearby in an attempt to capture company information.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question implies that users should be required to enter their domain credentials upon connection to the wireless network. The fact that they are connecting to a wireless network without being prompted for their domain credentials and they are unable to access network resources suggests they are connecting to a rogue wireless network. A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. Rogue access points of the first kind can pose a security threat to large organizations with many employees, because anyone with access to the premises can install (maliciously or non-maliciously) an inexpensive wireless router that can potentially allow access to a secure network to unauthorized parties. Rogue access points of the second kind target networks that do not employ mutual authentication (client-server server-client) and may be used in conjunction with a rogue RADIUS server, depending on security configuration of the target network. To prevent the installation of rogue access points, organizations can install wireless intrusion prevention systems to monitor the radio spectrum for unauthorized access points.
Q13. The security administrator has been tasked to update all the access points to provide a more secure connection. All access points currently use WPA TKIP for encryption. Which of the following would be configured to provide more secure connections?
A. WEP
B. WPA2 CCMP
C. Disable SSID broadcast and increase power levels
D. MAC filtering
Answer: B
Explanation:
CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.
Q14. A vulnerability scan is reporting that patches are missing on a server. After a review, it is determined that the application requiring the patch does not exist on the operating system.
Which of the following describes this cause?
A. Application hardening
B. False positive
C. Baseline code review
D. False negative
Answer: B
Explanation:
False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about.
Q15. One of the most consistently reported software security vulnerabilities that leads to major exploits is:
A. Lack of malware detection.
B. Attack surface decrease.
C. Inadequate network hardening.
D. Poor input validation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D: With coding there are standards that should be observed. Of these standards the most fundamental is input validation. Attacks such as SQL injection depend on unfiltered input being sent through a web application. This makes for a software vulnerability that can be exploited. There are two primary ways to do input validation: client-side validation and server-side validation. Thus with poor input validation you increase your risk with regard to exposure to major software exploits.