SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

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CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following protocols is MOST likely to be leveraged by users who need additional information about another user? 

A. LDAP 

B. RADIUS 

C. Kerberos 

D. TACACS+ 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q2. A security administrator is tackling issues related to authenticating users at a remote site. There have been a large number of security incidents that resulted from either tailgating or impersonation of authorized users with valid credentials. The security administrator has been told to implement multifactor authentication in order to control facility access. To secure access to the remote facility, which of the following could be implemented without increasing the amount of space required at the entrance? 

A. MOTD challenge and PIN pad 

B. Retina scanner and fingerprint reader 

C. Voice recognition and one-time PIN token 

D. One-time PIN token and proximity reader 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q3. Joe, a user, wants to send an encrypted email to Ann. Which of the following will Ann need to use to verify the validity’s of Joe’s certificate? (Select TWO). 

A. The CA’s public key 

B. Joe’s private key 

C. Ann’s public key 

D. The CA’s private key 

E. Joe’s public key 

F. Ann’s private key 

Answer: A,E 

Explanation: 

Joe wants to send a message to Ann. It’s important that this message not be altered. Joe will use the private key to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. Joe then sends the message to Ann. Ann will use the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, Ann knows the message is authentic and came from Joe. Ann will use a key provided by Joe—the public key—to decrypt the message. Most digital signature implementations also use a hash to verify that the message has not been altered, intentionally or accidently, in transit. Thus Ann would compare the signature area referred to as a message in the message with the calculated value digest (her private key in this case). If the values match, the message hasn’t been tampered with and the originator is verified as the person they claim to be. This process provides message integrity, nonrepudiation, and authentication. A certificate authority (CA) is an organization that is responsible for issuing, revoking, and distributing certificates. A certificate is nothing more than a mechanism that associates the public key with an individual. If Joe wants to send Ann an encrypted e-mail, there should be a mechanism to verify to Ann that the message received from Mike is really from Joe. If a third party (the CA) vouches for Joe and Ann trusts that third party, Ann can assume that the message is authentic because the third party says so. 

Q4. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has mandated that all IT systems with credit card data be segregated from the main corporate network to prevent unauthorized access and that access to the IT systems should be logged. Which of the following would BEST meet the CISO’s requirements? 

A. Sniffers 

B. NIDS 

C. Firewalls 

D. Web proxies 

E. Layer 2 switches 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another. 

Q5. Which of the following are examples of detective controls? 

A. Biometrics, motion sensors and mantraps. 

B. Audit, firewall, anti-virus and biometrics. 

C. Motion sensors, intruder alarm and audit. 

D. Intruder alarm, mantraps and firewall. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q6. An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates associated with which of the following protocols? 

A. TCP/IP 

B. SSL 

C. SCP 

D. SSH 

Answer:

Explanation: 

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is used for establishing an encrypted link between two computers, typically a web server and a browser. SSL is used to enable sensitive information such as login credentials and credit card numbers to be transmitted securely. 

Q7. Digital certificates can be used to ensure which of the following? (Select TWO). 

A. Availability 

B. Confidentiality 

C. Verification 

D. Authorization 

E. Non-repudiation 

Answer: B,E 

Explanation: 

Digital Signatures is used to validate the integrity of the message and the sender. Digital certificates refer to cryptography which is mainly concerned with Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication, Nonrepudiation and Access Control. Nonrepudiation prevents one party from denying actions they carried out. 

Q8. A security administrator must implement a secure key exchange protocol that will allow company clients to autonomously exchange symmetric encryption keys over an unencrypted channel. Which of the following MUST be implemented? 

A. SHA-256 

B. AES 

C. Diffie-Hellman 

D. 3DES 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q9. CORRECT TEXT 

A security administrator discovers that an attack has been completed against a node on the corporate network. All available logs were collected and stored. 

You must review all network logs to discover the scope of the attack, check the box of the node(s) that have been compromised and drag and drop the appropriate actions to complete the incident response on the network. The environment is a critical production environment; perform the LEAST disruptive actions on the network, while still performing the appropriate incid3nt responses. 

Instructions: The web server, database server, IDS, and User PC are clickable. Check the box of the node(s) that have been compromised and drag and drop the appropriate actions to complete the incident response on the network. Not all actions may be used, and order is not important. If at anytime you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue. 

Answer: Database server was attacked, actions should be to capture network traffic and Chain of Custody. 

Q10. Company XYZ has encountered an increased amount of buffer overflow attacks. The programmer has been tasked to identify the issue and report any findings. Which of the following is the FIRST step of action recommended in this scenario? 

A. Baseline Reporting 

B. Capability Maturity Model 

C. Code Review 

D. Quality Assurance and Testing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q11. Which of the following network devices is used to analyze traffic between various network interfaces? 

A. Proxies 

B. Firewalls 

C. Content inspection 

D. Sniffers 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer. 

Q12. A company has recently allowed employees to take advantage of BYOD by installing WAPs throughout the corporate office. An employee, Joe, has recently begun to view inappropriate material at work using his personal laptop. When confronted, Joe indicated that he was never told that he could not view that type of material on his personal laptop. Which of the following should the company have employees acknowledge before allowing them to access the corporate WLAN with their personal devices? 

A. Privacy Policy 

B. Security Policy 

C. Consent to Monitoring Policy 

D. Acceptable Use Policy 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q13. Pete, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a company, has increased his travel plans for the next two years to improve business relations. Which of the following would need to be in place in case something happens to Pete? 

A. Succession planning 

B. Disaster recovery 

C. Separation of duty 

D. Removing single loss expectancy 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization who have the ability to step into positions when they open. By identifying key roles that cannot be left unfilled and associating internal employees who can step into these roles, you can groom those employees to make sure that they are up to speed when it comes time for them to fill those positions. 

Q14. The Quality Assurance team is testing a new third party developed application. The Quality team does not have any experience with the application. Which of the following is the team performing? 

A. Grey box testing 

B. Black box testing 

C. Penetration testing 

D. White box testing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is aware of what the software is supposed to do but is not aware of how it does it. For instance, the tester is aware that a particular input returns a certain, invariable output but is not aware of how the software produces the output in the first place. 

Q15. Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone? 

A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks. 

B. A network where all servers exist and are monitored. 

C. A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists. 

D. A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.