SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

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CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. Matt, a security analyst, needs to select an asymmetric encryption method that allows for the same level of encryption strength with a lower key length than is typically necessary. Which of the following encryption methods offers this capability? 

A. Twofish 

B. Diffie-Hellman 

C. ECC 

D. RSA 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields. One of the main benefits in comparison with non-ECC cryptography (with plain Galois fields as a basis) is the same level of security provided by keys of smaller size. 

Q2. Which of the following devices would be the MOST efficient way to filter external websites for staff on an internal network? 

A. Protocol analyzer 

B. Switch 

C. Proxy 

D. Router 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q3. Which of the following is a best practice when a mistake is made during a forensics examination? 

A. The examiner should verify the tools before, during, and after an examination. 

B. The examiner should attempt to hide the mistake during cross-examination. 

C. The examiner should document the mistake and workaround the problem. 

D. The examiner should disclose the mistake and assess another area of the disc. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Every step in an incident response should be documented, including every action taken by end users and the incident-response team. 

Q4. An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company. 

Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code? 

A. Vulnerability scanning 

B. Denial of service 

C. Fuzzing 

D. Port scanning 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks. 

Q5. A retail store uses a wireless network for its employees to access inventory from anywhere in the store. Due to concerns regarding the aging wireless network, the store manager has brought in a consultant to harden the network. During the site survey, the consultant discovers that the network was using WEP encryption. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the consultant to recommend? 

A. Replace the unidirectional antenna at the front of the store with an omni-directional antenna. 

B. Change the encryption used so that the encryption protocol is CCMP-based. 

C. Disable the network's SSID and configure the router to only access store devices based on MAC addresses. 

D. Increase the access point's encryption from WEP to WPA TKIP. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q6. An insurance company requires an account recovery process so that information created by an employee can be accessed after that employee is no longer with the firm. Which of the following is the BEST approach to implement this process? 

A. Employee is required to share their password with authorized staff prior to leaving the firm 

B. Passwords are stored in a reversible form so that they can be recovered when needed 

C. Authorized employees have the ability to reset passwords so that the data is accessible 

D. All employee data is exported and imported by the employee prior to them leaving the firm 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Since a user’s password isn’t stored on most operating systems (only a hash value is kept), most operating systems allow the administrator (or authorized person in this case) to change the value then the information/files/documents can be accessed. This is the safest way of recovery by an authorized person and is not dependent on those who leave the firm. 

Q7. A merchant acquirer has the need to store credit card numbers in a transactional database in a high performance environment. Which of the following BEST protects the credit card data? 

A. Database field encryption 

B. File-level encryption 

C. Data loss prevention system 

D. Full disk encryption 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Database encryption makes use of cryptography functions that are built into the database software to encrypt the data stored in the data base. This often offers granular encryption options which allows for the encryptions of the entire database, specific database tables, or specific database fields, such as a credit card number field. 

Q8. Which of the following allows an organization to store a sensitive PKI component with a trusted third party? 

A. Trust model 

B. Public Key Infrastructure 

C. Private key 

D. Key escrow 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Sensitive PKI data, such as private keys, can be put into key escrow data. The key escrow data can be kept at a trusted third party. 

Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow so that, under certain circumstances, an authorized third party may gain access to those keys. These third parties may include businesses, who may want access to employees' private communications, or governments, who may wish to be able to view the contents of encrypted communications. 

Q9. Which of the following ports would be blocked if Pete, a security administrator, wants to deny access to websites? 

A. 21 

B. 25 

C. 80 

D. 3389 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Port 80 is used by HTTP, which is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web. 

Q10. After a security incident involving a physical asset, which of the following should be done at the beginning? 

A. Record every person who was in possession of assets, continuing post-incident. 

B. Create working images of data in the following order: hard drive then RAM. 

C. Back up storage devices so work can be performed on the devices immediately. 

D. Write a report detailing the incident and mitigation suggestions. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Asset tracking is the process of maintaining oversight over inventory, and ensuring that a device is still in the possession of the assigned authorized user. 

Q11. Access mechanisms to data on encrypted USB hard drives must be implemented correctly otherwise: 

A. user accounts may be inadvertently locked out. 

B. data on the USB drive could be corrupted. 

C. data on the hard drive will be vulnerable to log analysis. 

D. the security controls on the USB drive can be bypassed. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A common access mechanism to data on encrypted USB hard drives is a password. If a weak password is used, someone could guess the password and bypass the security controls on the USB drive to access the data. 

Q12. Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify a problem between two applications that are not communicating properly? 

A. Protocol analyzer 

B. Baseline report 

C. Risk assessment 

D. Vulnerability scan 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture 

network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing and analyzing the 

packets sent between applications on systems that are not communicating properly could help 

determine the cause of the issue. 

Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor) 

from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal). 

Q13. Which of the following is BEST utilized to actively test security controls on a particular system? 

A. Port scanning 

B. Penetration test 

C. Vulnerability scanning 

D. Grey/Gray box 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in. 

Pen test strategies include: 

Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out. 

External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access. 

Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause. 

Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive. 

Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures. 

Q14. Which of the following does full disk encryption prevent? 

A. Client side attacks 

B. Clear text access 

C. Database theft 

D. Network-based attacks 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen. 

Q15. Which of the following is a hardware-based security technology included in a computer? 

A. Symmetric key 

B. Asymmetric key 

C. Whole disk encryption 

D. Trusted platform module 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.