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Q1. Joe, the systems administrator, is setting up a wireless network for his team’s laptops only and needs to prevent other employees from accessing it. Which of the following would BEST address this?
A. Disable default SSID broadcasting.
B. Use WPA instead of WEP encryption.
C. Lower the access point’s power settings.
D. Implement MAC filtering on the access point.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If MAC filtering is turned off, any wireless client that knows the values looked for (MAC addresses) can join the network. When MAC filtering is used, the administrator compiles a list of the MAC addresses associated with users’ computers and enters those addresses. When a client attempts to connect and other values have been correctly entered, an additional check of the MAC address is done. If the address appears in the list, the client is allowed to join; otherwise, it is forbidden from doing so.
Q2. NO: 104
A UNIX administrator would like to use native commands to provide a secure way of connecting to other devices remotely and to securely transfer files. Which of the following protocols could be utilized? (Select TWO).
A. RDP
B. SNMP
C. FTP
D. SCP
E. SSH
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router,
switch, or similar device over any distance.
Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy
Protocol (RCP). SCP is commonly used on Linux and Unix platforms.
Q3. Which of the following types of wireless attacks would be used specifically to impersonate another WAP in order to gain unauthorized information from mobile users?
A. IV attack
B. Evil twin
C. War driving
D. Rogue access point
Answer: B
Explanation:
An evil twin, in the context of network security, is a rogue or fake wireless access point (WAP) that appears as a genuine hotspot offered by a legitimate provider. In an evil twin attack, an eavesdropper or hacker fraudulently creates this rogue hotspot to collect the personal data of unsuspecting users. Sensitive data can be stolen by spying on a connection or using a phishing technique. For example, a hacker using an evil twin exploit may be positioned near an authentic Wi-Fi access point and discover the service set identifier (SSID) and frequency. The hacker may then send a radio signal using the exact same frequency and SSID. To end users, the rogue evil twin appears as their legitimate hotspot with the same name. In wireless transmissions, evil twins are not a new phenomenon. Historically, they were known as honeypots or base station clones. With the advancement of wireless technology and the use of wireless devices in public areas, it is very easy for novice users to set up evil twin exploits.
Q4. Four weeks ago, a network administrator applied a new IDS and allowed it to gather baseline data. As rumors of a layoff began to spread, the IDS alerted the network administrator that access to sensitive client files had risen far above normal. Which of the following kind of IDS is in use?
A. Protocol based
B. Heuristic based
C. Signature based
D. Anomaly based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q5. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?
A. Smurf Attack
B. Man in the middle
C. Backdoor
D. Replay
E. Spear Phishing
F. Xmas Attack
G. Blue Jacking
H. Ping of Death
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit shows that all the computers on the network are being ‘pinged’. This indicates that the ping request was sent to the network broadcast address. We can also see that all the replies were received by one (probably with a spoofed address) host on the network. This is typical of a smurf attack.
A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.
Q6. Which of the following concepts defines the requirement for data availability?
A. Authentication to RADIUS
B. Non-repudiation of email messages
C. Disaster recovery planning
D. Encryption of email messages
Answer: C
Explanation:
A disaster-recovery plan, or scheme, helps an organization respond effectively when a disaster occurs. Disasters may include system failure, network failure, infrastructure failure, and natural disaster. The primary emphasis of such a plan is reestablishing services and minimizing losses.
Q7. A software development company has hired a programmer to develop a plug-in module to an existing proprietary application. After completing the module, the developer needs to test the entire application to ensure that the module did not introduce new vulnerabilities. Which of the following is the developer performing when testing the application?
A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Gray box testing
D. Design review
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this question, we know the tester has some knowledge of the application because the tester developed a plug-in module for it. However, the tester does not have detailed information about the entire application. Therefore, this is a grey-box test. Gray box testing, also called gray box analysis, is a strategy for software debugging in which the tester has limited knowledge of the internal details of the program. A gray box is a device, program or system whose workings are partially understood. Gray box testing can be contrasted with black box testing, a scenario in which the tester has no knowledge or access to the internal workings of a program, or white box testing, a scenario in which the internal particulars are fully known. Gray box testing is commonly used in penetration tests. Gray box testing is considered to be non-intrusive and unbiased because it does not require that the tester have access to the source code. With respect to internal processes, gray box testing treats a program as a black box that must be analyzed from the outside. During a gray box test, the person may know how the system components interact but not have detailed knowledge about internal program functions and operation. A clear distinction exists between the developer and the tester, thereby minimizing the risk of personnel conflicts.
Topic 4, Application, Data and Host Security
Q8. A security administrator must implement a system that will support and enforce the following file system access control model: FILE NAME SECURITY LABEL Employees.doc Confidential Salary.xls Confidential
OfficePhones.xls Unclassified
PersonalPhones.xls Restricted
Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. White and black listing
B. SCADA system
C. Trusted OS
D. Version control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q9. Which of the following devices is BEST suited to protect an HTTP-based application that is susceptible to injection attacks?
A. Protocol filter
B. Load balancer
C. NIDS
D. Layer 7 firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
An application-level gateway firewall filters traffic based on user access, group membership, the application or service used, or even the type of resources being transmitted. This type of firewall operates at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model.
Q10. A security administrator is aware that a portion of the company’s Internet-facing network tends to be non-secure due to poorly configured and patched systems. The business owner has accepted the risk of those systems being compromised, but the administrator wants to determine the degree to which those systems can be used to gain access to the company intranet. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Patch management assessment
B. Business impact assessment
C. Penetration test
D. Vulnerability assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. It is also used to determine the degree to which the systems can be used to gain access to the company intranet (the degree of access to local network resources). Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.
Pen test strategies include:
Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.
External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access.
Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.
Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.
Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.
Q11. Which of the following cryptographic related browser settings allows an organization to communicate securely?
A. SSL 3.0/TLS 1.0
B. 3DES
C. Trusted Sites
D. HMAC
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to establish a secure communication connection between two TCP-based machines. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a security protocol that expands upon SSL. Many industry analysts predict that TLS will replace SSL in the future. TLS 1.0 was first defined in RFC 2246 in January 1999 as an upgrade of SSL Version 3.0. As of February 2015, the latest versions of all major web browsers support TLS 1.0, 1.1, and 1.2, have them enabled by default.
Q12. Which of the following solutions provides the most flexibility when testing new security controls prior to implementation?
A. Trusted OS
B. Host software baselining
C. OS hardening
D. Virtualization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q13. A company is about to release a very large patch to its customers. An administrator is required to test patch installations several times prior to distributing them to customer PCs. Which of the following should the administrator use to test the patching process quickly and often?
A. Create an incremental backup of an unpatched PC
B. Create an image of a patched PC and replicate it to servers
C. Create a full disk image to restore after each installation
D. Create a virtualized sandbox and utilize snapshots
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q14. Pete, a security administrator, is informed that people from the HR department should not have access to the accounting department’s server, and the accounting department should not have access to the HR department’s server. The network is separated by switches. Which of the following is designed to keep the HR department users from accessing the accounting department’s server and vice-versa?
A. ACLs
B. VLANs
C. DMZs
D. NATS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
Q15. A user has plugged in a wireless router from home with default configurations into a network jack at the office. This is known as:
A. an evil twin.
B. an IV attack.
C. a rogue access point.
D. an unauthorized entry point.
Answer: C
Explanation: