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Q1. A security administrator has been tasked with setting up a new internal wireless network that must use end to end TLS. Which of the following may be used to meet this objective?
A. WPA
B. HTTPS
C. WEP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) was intended to provide security that’s equivalent to that on a wired network, and it implements elements of the 802.11i standard. In April 2010, the Wi-Fi Alliance announced the inclusion of additional Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types to its certification programs for WPA- and WPA2- Enterprise certification programs. EAP-TLS is included in this certification program. Note: Although WPA mandates the use of TKIP, WPA2 requires Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP). CCMP uses 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. With the larger initialization vector, it increases the difficulty in cracking and minimizes the risk of a replay attack.
Q2. The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has been informed of a potential fraud committed by a database administrator performing several other job functions within the company. Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent such activities in the future?
A. Job rotation
B. Separation of duties
C. Mandatory Vacations
D. Least Privilege
Answer: B
Explanation:
Separation of duties means that users are granted only the permissions they need to do their work and no more. More so it means that you are employing best practices. The segregation of duties and separation of environments is a way to reduce the likelihood of misuse of systems or information. A separation of duties policy is designed to reduce the risk of fraud and to prevent other losses in an organization.
Q3. Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:
A. Firewalls
B. Content filters
C. Routers
D. NIDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.
Q4. Joe, a network administrator, is able to manage the backup software console by using his network login credentials. Which of the following authentication services is he MOST likely using?
A. SAML
B. LDAP
C. iSCSI
D. Two-factor authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q5. A system administrator has noticed vulnerability on a high impact production server. A recent update was made available by the vendor that addresses the vulnerability but requires a reboot of the system afterwards. Which of the following steps should the system administrator implement to address the vulnerability?
A. Test the update in a lab environment, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the patch and reboot the server and monitor for any changes
B. Test the update in a lab environment, backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the patch, and monitor for any changes
C. Test the update in a lab environment, backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the update, reboot the server, and monitor for any changes
D. Backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, installs the patch and monitor for any changes
Answer: C
Explanation:
We have an update to apply to fix the vulnerability. The update should be tested first in a lab environment, not on the production server to ensure it doesn’t cause any other problems with the server. After testing the update, we should backup the server to enable us to roll back any changes in the event of any unforeseen problems with the update. The question states that the server will require a reboot. This will result in downtime so you should schedule the downtime before installing the patch. After installing the update, you should monitor the server to ensure it is functioning correctly.
Q6. A security audit identifies a number of large email messages being sent by a specific user from their company email account to another address external to the company. These messages were sent prior to a company data breach, which prompted the security audit. The user was one of a few people who had access to the leaked data. Review of the suspect’s emails show they consist mostly of pictures of the user at various locations during a recent vacation. No suspicious activities from other users who have access to the data were discovered.
Which of the following is occurring?
A. The user is encrypting the data in the outgoing messages.
B. The user is using steganography.
C. The user is spamming to obfuscate the activity.
D. The user is using hashing to embed data in the emails.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Steganography is the process of hiding one message in another. Steganography may also be referred to as electronic watermarking. It is also the process of hiding a message in a medium such as a digital image, audio fi le, or other fi le. In theory, doing this prevents analysts from detecting the real message. You could encode your message in another file or message and use that file to hide your message.
Q7. Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C
Explanation:
False positives are essentially events that are mistakenly flagged and are not really events to be concerned about. This causes a significant administrative overhead because the reporting is what results in the false positives.
Q8. When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q9. The security manager received a report that an employee was involved in illegal activity and has saved data to a workstation’s hard drive. During the investigation, local law enforcement’s criminal division confiscates the hard drive as evidence. Which of the following forensic procedures is involved?
A. Chain of custody
B. System image
C. Take hashes
D. Order of volatility
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been.
Q10. Which of the following is used to verify data integrity?
A. SHA
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. RSA
Answer: A
Explanation:
SHA stands for "secure hash algorithm". SHA-1 is the most widely used of the existing SHA hash
functions, and is employed in several widely used applications and protocols including TLS and
SSL, PGP, SSH, S/MIME, and IPsec. It is used to ensure data integrity.
Note:
A hash value (or simply hash), also called a message digest, is a number generated from a string
of text. The hash is substantially smaller than the text itself, and is generated by a formula in such
a way that it is extremely unlikely that some other text will produce the same hash value.
Hashes play a role in security systems where they're used to ensure that transmitted messages
have not been tampered with. The sender generates a hash of the message, encrypts it, and sends it with the message itself. The recipient then decrypts both the message and the hash, produces another hash from the received message, and compares the two hashes. If they're the same, there is a very high probability that the message was transmitted intact. This is how hashing is used to ensure data integrity.
Q11. Which of the following will help prevent smurf attacks?
A. Allowing necessary UDP packets in and out of the network
B. Disabling directed broadcast on border routers
C. Disabling unused services on the gateway firewall
D. Flash the BIOS with the latest firmware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q12. Which of the following secure file transfer methods uses port 22 by default?
A. FTPS
B. SFTP
C. SSL
D. S/MIME
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Q13. An organization must implement controls to protect the confidentiality of its most sensitive data. The company is currently using a central storage system and group based access control for its sensitive information. Which of the following controls can further secure the data in the central storage system?
A. Data encryption
B. Patching the system
C. Digital signatures
D. File hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q14. When a communications plan is developed for disaster recovery and business continuity plans, the MOST relevant items to include would be: (Select TWO).
A. Methods and templates to respond to press requests, institutional and regulatory reporting requirements.
B. Methods to exchange essential information to and from all response team members, employees, suppliers, and customers.
C. Developed recovery strategies, test plans, post-test evaluation and update processes.
D. Defined scenarios by type and scope of impact and dependencies, with quantification of loss potential.
E. Methods to review and report on system logs, incident response, and incident handling.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A: External emergency communications that should fit into your business continuity plan include notifying family members of an injury or death, discussing the disaster with the media, and providing status information to key clients and stakeholders. Each message needs to be prepared with the audience (e.g., employees, media, families, government regulators) in mind; broad general announcements may be acceptable in the initial aftermath of an incident, but these will need to be tailored to the audiences in subsequent releases.
B: A typical emergency communications plan should be extensive in detail and properly planned by a business continuity planner. Internal alerts are sent using either email, overhead building paging systems, voice messages or text messages to cell/smartphones with instructions to evacuate the building and relocate at assembly points, updates on the status of the situation, and notification of when it's safe to return to work.
Q15. A recent review of accounts on various systems has found that after employees' passwords are required to change they are recycling the same password as before. Which of the following policies should be enforced to prevent this from happening? (Select TWO).
A. Reverse encryption
B. Minimum password age
C. Password complexity
D. Account lockouts
E. Password history
F. Password expiration
Answer: B,E
Explanation: