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Q1. Joe, a security analyst, asks each employee of an organization to sign a statement saying that they understand how their activities may be monitored. Which of the following BEST describes this statement? (Select TWO).
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Risk acceptance policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Email policy
E. Security policy
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Privacy policies define what controls are required to implement and maintain the sanctity of data privacy in the work environment. Privacy policy is a legal document that outlines how data collected is secured. It should encompass information regarding the information the company collects, privacy choices you have based on your account, potential information sharing of your data with other parties, security measures in place, and enforcement. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.
Q2. In order for Sara, a client, to logon to her desktop computer, she must provide her username, password, and a four digit PIN. Which of the following authentication methods is Sara using?
A. Three factor
B. Single factor
C. Two factor
D. Four factor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Single-factor authentication is when only one authentication factor is used. In this case, Something you know is being used as an authentication factor. Username, password, and PIN form part of Something you know.
Q3. Which of the following, if properly implemented, would prevent users from accessing files that are unrelated to their job duties? (Select TWO).
A. Separation of duties
B. Job rotation
C. Mandatory vacation
D. Time of day restrictions
E. Least privilege
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Q4. A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below:
POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1 HOST: localhost Accept: */* Referrer: http://localhost/ ******* HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden Connection: close
Log: Access denied with 403. Pattern matches form bypass Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log?
A. Host-based Intrusion Detection System
B. Web application firewall
C. Network-based Intrusion Detection System
D. Stateful Inspection Firewall
E. URL Content Filter
Answer: B
Explanation:
A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. It’s intended to be an application-specific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.
Q5. Which of the following types of authentication packages user credentials in a ticket?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The basic process of Kerberos authentication is as follows:
The subject provides logon credentials.
The Kerberos client system encrypts the password and transmits the protected credentials to the
KDC.
The KDC verifies the credentials and then creates a ticket-granting ticket (TGT—a hashed form of
the subject’s password with the addition of a time stamp that indicates a valid lifetime). The TGT is
encrypted and sent to the client.
The client receives the TGT. At this point, the subject is an authenticated principle in the Kerberos
realm.
The subject requests access to resources on a network server. This causes the client to request a
service ticket (ST) from the KDC.
The KDC verifies that the client has a valid TGT and then issues an ST to the client. The ST
includes a time stamp that indicates its valid lifetime.
The client receives the ST.
The client sends the ST to the network server that hosts the desired resource.
The network server verifies the ST. If it’s verified, it initiates a communication session with the
client. From this point forward, Kerberos is no longer involved.
Q6. A user attempting to log on to a workstation for the first time is prompted for the following information before being granted access: username, password, and a four-digit security pin that was mailed to him during account registration. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Dual-factor authentication
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Single factor authentication
D. Biometric authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a method of computer access control which a user can pass by successfully presenting authentication factors from at least two of the three categories: knowledge factors ("things only the user knows"), such as passwords possession factors ("things only the user has"), such as ATM cards inherence factors ("things only the user is"), such as biometrics
In this question a username, password, and a four-digit security pin knowledge are all knowledge factors (something the user knows). Therefore, this is single-factor authentication.
Q7. Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information.
Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking
Answer: A
Explanation:
The bins in this question will be secure bins designed to prevent someone accessing the ‘rubbish’ to learn sensitive information. Dumpster diving is looking for treasure in someone else's trash. (A dumpster is a large trash container.) In the world of information technology, dumpster diving is a technique used to retrieve information that could be used to carry out an attack on a computer network. Dumpster diving isn't limited to searching through the trash for obvious treasures like access codes or passwords written down on sticky notes. Seemingly innocent information like a phone list, calendar, or organizational chart can be used to assist an attacker using social engineering techniques to gain access to the network. To prevent dumpster divers from learning anything valuable from your trash, experts recommend that your company establish a disposal policy where all paper, including print-outs, is shredded in a cross-cut shredder before being recycled, all storage media is erased, and all staff is educated about the danger of untracked trash.
Q8. Which of the following is BEST used to capture and analyze network traffic between hosts on the same network segment?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Router
C. Firewall
D. HIPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q9. An advantage of virtualizing servers, databases, and office applications is:
A. Centralized management.
B. Providing greater resources to users.
C. Stronger access control.
D. Decentralized management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtualization consists of allowing one set of hardware to host multiple virtual Machines and in the case of software and applications; one host is all that is required. This makes centralized management a better prospect.
Q10. Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites?
A. Spam filter
B. URL filter
C. Content inspection
D. Malware inspection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q11. After a new firewall has been installed, devices cannot obtain a new IP address. Which of the following ports should Matt, the security administrator, open on the firewall?
A. 25
B. 68
C. 80
D. 443
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for distributing IP addresses for interfaces and services. DHCP makes use of port 68.
Q12. A security administrator must implement a system to allow clients to securely negotiate encryption keys with the company’s server over a public unencrypted communication channel.
Which of the following implements the required secure key negotiation? (Select TWO).
A. PBKDF2
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Steganography
D. ECDHE
E. Diffie-Hellman
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Elliptic curve Diffie–Hellman (ECDH) is an anonymous key agreement protocol that allows two parties, each having an elliptic curve public-private key pair, to establish a shared secret over an insecure channel. This shared secret may be directly used as a key, or better yet, to derive another key which can then be used to encrypt subsequent communications using a symmetric key cipher. It is a variant of the Diffie–Hellman protocol using elliptic curve cryptography. Note: Adding an ephemeral key to Diffie-Hellman turns it into DHE (which, despite the order of the acronym, stands for Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman). Adding an ephemeral key to Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman turns it into ECDHE (again, overlook the order of the acronym letters, it is called Ephemeral Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman). It is the ephemeral component of each of these that provides the perfect forward secrecy.
Q13. A server is configured to communicate on both VLAN 1 and VLAN 12. VLAN 1 communication works fine, but VLAN 12 does not. Which of the following MUST happen before the server can communicate on VLAN 12?
A. The server's network switch port must be enabled for 802.11x on VLAN 12.
B. The server's network switch port must use VLAN Q-in-Q for VLAN 12.
C. The server's network switch port must be 802.1q untagged for VLAN 12.
D. The server's network switch port must be 802.1q tagged for VLAN 12.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q14. Which of the following attacks would cause all mobile devices to lose their association with corporate access points while the attack is underway?
A. Wireless jamming
B. Evil twin
C. Rogue AP
D. Packet sniffing
Answer: A
Explanation:
When most people think of frequency jamming, what comes to mind are radio, radar and cell phone jamming. However, any communication that uses radio frequencies can be jammed by a strong radio signal in the same frequency. In this manner, Wi-Fi may be attacked with a network jamming attack, reducing signal quality until it becomes unusable or disconnects occur. With very similar methods, a focused and aimed signal can actually break access point hardware, as with equipment destruction attacks.
Q15. Which of the following is a notification that an unusual condition exists and should be investigated?
A. Alert
B. Trend
C. Alarm
D. Trap
Answer: A
Explanation:
We need to look carefully at the wording of the question to determine the answer. This question is asking about an “unusual condition” that should be investigated. There are different levels of alerts from Critical to Warning to Information only. An Alarm would be triggered by a serious definite problem that needs resolving urgently. An “unusual condition” probably wouldn’t trigger an alarm; it is more likely to trigger an Alert.