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Q1. During a server audit, a security administrator does not notice abnormal activity. However, a network security analyst notices connections to unauthorized ports from outside the corporate network. Using specialized tools, the network security analyst also notices hidden processes running. Which of the following has MOST likely been installed on the server?
A. SPIM
B. Backdoor
C. Logic bomb
D. Rootkit
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of tools (programs) that enable administrator-level access to a computer or computer network. Typically, a cracker installs a rootkit on a computer after first obtaining user-level access, either by exploiting a known vulnerability or cracking a password. Once the rootkit is installed, it allows the attacker to mask intrusion and gain root or privileged access to the computer and, possibly, other machines on the network. A rootkit may consist of spyware and other programs that: monitor traffic and keystrokes; create a "backdoor" into the system for the hacker's use; alter log files; attack other machines on the network; and alter existing system tools to escape detection. The presence of a rootkit on a network was first documented in the early 1990s. At that time, Sun and Linux operating systems were the primary targets for a hacker looking to install a rootkit. Today, rootkits are available for a number of operating systems, including Windows, and are increasingly difficult to detect on any network.
Q2. During an audit, the security administrator discovers that there are several users that are no longer employed with the company but still have active user accounts. Which of the following should be performed?
A. Account recovery
B. Account disablement
C. Account lockouts
D. Account expiration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Account Disablement should be implemented when a user will be gone from a company whether they leave temporary or permanently. In the case of permanently leaving the company the account should be disabled. Disablement means that the account will no longer be an active account.
Q3. When a new network drop was installed, the cable was run across several fluorescent lights. The users of the new network drop experience intermittent connectivity. Which of the following environmental controls was MOST likely overlooked during installation?
A. Humidity sensors
B. EMI shielding
C. Channel interference
D. Cable kinking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shielding refers to the process of preventing electronic emissions from your computer systems from being used to gather intelligence and preventing outside electronic emissions from disrupting your information-processing abilities. In this case you are experiencing intermittent connectivity since Electro Magnetic Interference (EMI) was not taken into account when running the cables over fluorescent lighting.
Q4. Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server.
After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?
A. Spam filter
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Web application firewall
D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.
Q5. Which of the following is the BEST reason to provide user awareness and training programs for organizational staff?
A. To ensure proper use of social media
B. To reduce organizational IT risk
C. To detail business impact analyses
D. To train staff on zero-days
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ideally, a security awareness training program for the entire organization should cover the following areas: Importance of security Responsibilities of people in the organization Policies and procedures Usage policies Account and password-selection criteria Social engineering prevention
You can accomplish this training either by using internal staff or by hiring outside trainers. This type of training will significantly reduce the organizational IT risk.
Q6. Users have been reporting that their wireless access point is not functioning. They state that it allows slow connections to the internet, but does not provide access to the internal network. The user provides the SSID and the technician logs into the company’s access point and finds no issues. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Change the access point from WPA2 to WEP to determine if the encryption is too strong
B. Clear all access logs from the AP to provide an up-to-date access list of connected users
C. Check the MAC address of the AP to which the users are connecting to determine if it is an imposter
D. Reconfigure the access point so that it is blocking all inbound and outbound traffic as a troubleshooting gap
Answer: C
Explanation:
The users may be connecting to a rogue access point. The rogue access point could be hosting a wireless network that has the same SSID as the corporate wireless network. The only way to tell for sure if the access point the users are connecting to is the correct one is to check the MAC address. Every network card has a unique 48-bit address assigned. A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment. MAC addresses are used as a network address for most IEEE 802 network technologies, including Ethernet and WiFi. Logically, MAC addresses are used in the media access control protocol sublayer of the OSI reference model. MAC addresses are most often assigned by the manufacturer of a network interface controller (NIC) and are stored in its hardware, such as the card's read-only memory or some other firmware mechanism. If assigned by the manufacturer, a MAC address usually encodes the manufacturer's registered identification number and may be referred to as the burned-in address (BIA). It may also be known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. This can be contrasted to a programmed address, where the host device issues commands to the NIC to use an arbitrary address. A network node may have multiple NICs and each NIC must have a unique MAC address. MAC addresses are formed according to the rules of one of three numbering name spaces managed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE): MAC-48, EUI-48, and EUI-64.
Q7. A network administrator has recently updated their network devices to ensure redundancy is in place so that:
A. switches can redistribute routes across the network.
B. environmental monitoring can be performed.
C. single points of failure are removed.
D. hot and cold aisles are functioning.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Redundancy refers to systems that either are duplicated or fail over to other systems in the event of a malfunction. The best way to remove an SPOF from your environment is to add redundancy.
Q8. Which of the following offers the LEAST amount of protection against data theft by USB drives?
A. DLP
B. Database encryption
C. TPM
D. Cloud computing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud computing refers to performing data processing and storage elsewhere, over a network connection, rather than locally. Because users have access to the data, it can easily be copied to a USB device.
Q9. Which of the following is true about PKI? (Select TWO).
A. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the public key can decrypt it.
B. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the private key can decrypt it.
C. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the CA can decrypt it.
D. When encrypting a message with the public key, only the private key can decrypt it.
E. When encrypting a message with the private key, only the public key can decrypt it.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
E: You encrypt data with the private key and decrypt with the public key, though the opposite is
much more frequent.
Public-key cryptography, also known as asymmetric cryptography, is a class of cryptographic
protocols based on algorithms that require two separate keys, one of which is secret (or private)
and one of which is public. Although different, the two parts of this key pair are mathematically
linked.
D: In a PKI the sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key. The receiver decrypts the
data using his own private key.
PKI is a two-key, asymmetric system with four main components: certificate authority (CA),
registration authority (RA), RSA (the encryption algorithm), and digital certificates. Messages are
encrypted with a public key and decrypted with a private key.
A PKI example:
1.
You want to send an encrypted message to Jordan, so you request his public key.
2.
Jordan responds by sending you that key.
3.
You use the public key he sends you to encrypt the message.
4.
You send the message to him.
5.
Jordan uses his private key to decrypt the message.
Q10. Prior to leaving for an extended vacation, Joe uses his mobile phone to take a picture of his family in the house living room. Joe posts the picture on a popular social media site together with the message: "Heading to our two weeks vacation to Italy." Upon returning home, Joe discovers that the house was burglarized. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the house was burglarized if nobody knew Joe’s home address?
A. Joe has enabled the device access control feature on his mobile phone.
B. Joe’s home address can be easily found using the TRACEROUTE command.
C. The picture uploaded to the social media site was geo-tagged by the mobile phone.
D. The message posted on the social media site informs everyone the house will be empty.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geo-tagging is the process of embedding the GPS coordinates in image files and images taken using a smartphone or a digital camera. The geotagged information accompanying the image allows anyone to discover the precise location where the image was taken.
Q11. Various network outages have occurred recently due to unapproved changes to network and security devices. All changes were made using various system credentials. The security analyst has been tasked to update the security policy. Which of the following risk mitigation strategies would also need to be implemented to reduce the number of network outages due to unauthorized changes?
A. User rights and permissions review
B. Configuration management
C. Incident management
D. Implement security controls on Layer 3 devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions. Also reviewing user rights and permissions will afford the security analyst the opportunity to put the principle of least privilege in practice as well as update the security policy
Q12. Deploying a wildcard certificate is one strategy to:
A. Secure the certificate’s private key.
B. Increase the certificate’s encryption key length.
C. Extend the renewal date of the certificate.
D. Reduce the certificate management burden.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a public key certificate which can be used with multiple subdomains of a domain. This saves money and reduces the management burden of managing multiple certificates, one for each subdomain.
A single Wildcard certificate for *.example.com, will secure all these domains: payment.example.com contact.example.com
login-secure.example.com
www.example.com
Because the wildcard only covers one level of subdomains (the asterisk doesn't match full stops),
these domains would not be valid for the certificate:
test.login.example.com
Q13. Which of the following solutions provides the most flexibility when testing new security controls prior to implementation?
A. Trusted OS
B. Host software baselining
C. OS hardening
D. Virtualization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtualization is used to host one or more operating systems in the memory of a single host computer and allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on the same hardware. Virtualization offers the flexibility of quickly and easily making backups of entire virtual systems, and quickly recovering the virtual system when errors occur. Furthermore, malicious code compromises of virtual systems rarely affect the host system, which allows for safer testing and experimentation.
Q14. Concurrent use of a firewall, content filtering, antivirus software and an IDS system would be considered components of:
A. Redundant systems.
B. Separation of duties.
C. Layered security.
D. Application control.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Layered security is the practice of combining multiple mitigating security controls to protect resources and data.
Q15. Which of the following file systems is from Microsoft and was included with their earliest operating systems?
A. NTFS
B. UFS
C. MTFS
D. FAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
File Allocation Table (FAT) is a file system created by Microsoft and used for its earliest DOS operating systems.