Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Q1. Which of the following can BEST help prevent cross-site scripting attacks and buffer overflows on a production system?
A. Input validation
B. Network intrusion detection system
C. Anomaly-based HIDS
D. Peer review
Answer: A
Explanation:
Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain.
Q2. Disabling unnecessary services, restricting administrative access, and enabling auditing controls on a server are forms of which of the following?
A. Application patch management
B. Cross-site scripting prevention
C. Creating a security baseline
D. System hardening
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability. Reducing the surface of vulnerability typically includes removing or disabling unnecessary functions and features, removing or disabling unnecessary user accounts, disabling unnecessary protocols and ports, and disabling unnecessary services.
Q3. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to implement a redundant server location to which the production server images can be moved within 48 hours and services can be quickly restored, in case of a catastrophic failure of the primary datacenter’s HVAC. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. Cold site
B. Load balancing
C. Warm site
D. Hot site
Answer: C
Explanation:
Warm sites provide computer systems and compatible media capabilities. If a warm site is used, administrators and other staff will need to install and configure systems to resume operations. For most organizations, a warm site could be a remote office, a leased facility, or another organization with which yours has a reciprocal agreement.
Q4. Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks?
A. VLAN
B. Subnetting
C. DMZ
D. NAT
Answer: C
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
Q5. A company plans to expand by hiring new engineers who work in highly specialized areas. Each engineer will have very different job requirements and use unique tools and applications in their job. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to use?
A. Role-based privileges
B. Credential management
C. User assigned privileges
D. User access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q6. A system administrator attempts to ping a hostname and the response is 2001:4860:0:2001::68.
Which of the following replies has the administrator received?
A. The loopback address
B. The local MAC address
C. IPv4 address
D. IPv6 address
Answer: D
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are 128-bits in length. An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). The hexadecimal digits are case-insensitive, but IETF recommendations suggest the use of lower case letters. The full representation of eight 4-digit groups may be simplified by several techniques, eliminating parts of the representation.
Q7. Ann is a member of the Sales group. She needs to collaborate with Joe, a member of the IT group, to edit a file. Currently, the file has the following permissions: Ann: read/write
Sales Group: read
IT Group: no access
If a discretionary access control list is in place for the files owned by Ann, which of the following would be the BEST way to share the file with Joe?
A. Add Joe to the Sales group.
B. Have the system administrator give Joe full access to the file.
C. Give Joe the appropriate access to the file directly.
D. Remove Joe from the IT group and add him to the Sales group.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q8. Which of the following is an application security coding problem?
A. Error and exception handling
B. Patch management
C. Application hardening
D. Application fuzzing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exception handling is an aspect of secure coding. When errors occur, the system should revert back to a secure state. This must be coded into the system by the programmer, and should capture errors and exceptions so that they could be handled by the application.
Q9. Jane, a security analyst, is reviewing logs from hosts across the Internet which her company uses to gather data on new malware. Which of the following is being implemented by Jane’s company?
A. Vulnerability scanner
B. Honeynet
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Port scanner
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Internet hosts used to gather data on new malware are known as honeypots. A collection of honeypots is known as a honeynet. A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q10. An organization is recovering data following a datacenter outage and determines that backup copies of files containing personal information were stored in an unsecure location, because the sensitivity was unknown. Which of the following activities should occur to prevent this in the future?
A. Business continuity planning
B. Quantitative assessment
C. Data classification
D. Qualitative assessment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Information classification is done by confidentiality and comprises of three categories, namely: public use, internal use and restricted use. Knowing how to apply these categories and matching it up with the appropriate data handling will address the situation of the data ‘unknown sensitivity’
Q11. Users are utilizing thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which of the following mitigation techniques would address this concern? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the USB root hub within the OS.
B. Install anti-virus software on the USB drives.
C. Disable USB within the workstations BIOS.
D. Apply the concept of least privilege to USB devices.
E. Run spyware detection against all workstations.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A: The USB root hub can be disabled from within the operating system.
C: USB can also be configured and disabled in the system BIOS.
Q12. An SSL/TLS private key is installed on a corporate web proxy in order to inspect HTTPS requests. Which of the following describes how this private key should be stored so that it is protected from theft?
A. Implement full disk encryption
B. Store on encrypted removable media
C. Utilize a hardware security module
D. Store on web proxy file system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hardware Security Module (HSM) hardware-based encryption solution that is usually used in conjunction with PKI to enhance security with certification authorities (CAs). It is available as an expansion card and can cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Q13. The main corporate website has a service level agreement that requires availability 100% of the time, even in the case of a disaster. Which of the following would be required to meet this demand?
A. Warm site implementation for the datacenter
B. Geographically disparate site redundant datacenter
C. Localized clustering of the datacenter
D. Cold site implementation for the datacenter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data backups, redundant systems, and disaster recovery plans all support availability. AN in this case a geographically disparate site redundant datacenter represents 100% availability regardless of whether a disaster event occurs.
Q14. After encrypting all laptop hard drives, an executive officer’s laptop has trouble booting to the operating system. Now that it is successfully encrypted the helpdesk cannot retrieve the data.
Which of the following can be used to decrypt the information for retrieval?
A. Recovery agent
B. Private key
C. Trust models
D. Public key
Answer: A
Explanation:
To access the data the hard drive need to be decrypted. To decrypt the hard drive you would need
the proper private key. The key recovery agent can retrieve the required key.
A key recovery agent is an entity that has the ability to recover a key, key components, or plaintext
messages as needed.
Q15. A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage?
A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption
B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives
C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files
D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest
Answer: C
Explanation:
Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space.