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Q1. Which of the following is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine?
A. RPC
B. RSH
C. SSH
D. SSL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine.
Q2. A network engineer is setting up a network for a company. There is a BYOD policy for the employees so that they can connect their laptops and mobile devices.
Which of the following technologies should be employed to separate the administrative network from the network in which all of the employees’ devices are connected?
A. VPN
B. VLAN
C. WPA2
D. MAC filtering
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
Q3. An active directory setting restricts querying to only secure connections. Which of the following ports should be selected to establish a successful connection?
A. 389
B. 440
C. 636
D. 3286
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q4. One of the most basic ways to protect the confidentiality of data on a laptop in the event the device is physically stolen is to implement which of the following?
A. File level encryption with alphanumeric passwords
B. Biometric authentication and cloud storage
C. Whole disk encryption with two-factor authentication
D. BIOS passwords and two-factor authentication
Answer: C
Explanation: Whole-disk encryption only provides reasonable protection when the system is fully powered off. to make the most of the defensive strength of whole-disk encryption, a long, complex passphrase should be used to unlock the system on bootup. Combining whole-disk encryption with two factor authentication would further increase protection.
Q5. Joe, the security administrator, has determined that one of his web servers is under attack. Which of the following can help determine where the attack originated from?
A. Capture system image
B. Record time offset
C. Screenshots
D. Network sniffing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network sniffing is the process of capturing and analyzing the packets sent between systems on
the network. A network sniffer is also known as a Protocol Analyzer.
A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture
network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing and analyzing the
packets sent to the web server will help determine the source IP address of the system sending
the packets.
Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor)
from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal).
Q6. Which of the following security architecture elements also has sniffer functionality? (Select TWO).
A. HSM
B. IPS
C. SSL accelerator
D. WAP
E. IDS
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Sniffer functionality means the ability to capture and analyze the content of data packets as they
are transmitted across the network.
IDS and IPS systems perform their functions by capturing and analyzing the content of data
packets.
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or
system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management
station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in
different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection
systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor
expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily
focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts.
In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with
security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security
policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every
organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of
important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected
threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which
involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a
firewall) or changing the attack's content.
Q7. A network administrator has purchased two devices that will act as failovers for each other. Which of the following concepts does this BEST illustrate?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Availability
Answer: D
Explanation:
Failover refers to the process of reconstructing a system or switching over to other systems when a failure is detected. In the case of a server, the server switches to a redundant server when a fault is detected. This strategy allows service to continue uninterrupted until the primary server can be restored. In the case of a network, this means processing switches to another network path in the event of a network failure in the primary path. This means availability.
Q8. Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario?
A. Application Firewall
B. Anomaly Based IDS
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Signature IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.
Q9. After a company has standardized to a single operating system, not all servers are immune to a well-known OS vulnerability. Which of the following solutions would mitigate this issue?
A. Host based firewall
B. Initial baseline configurations
C. Discretionary access control
D. Patch management system
Answer: D
Explanation:
A patch is an update to a system. Sometimes a patch adds new functionality; in other cases, it corrects a bug in the software. Patch Management can thus be used to fix security problems discovered within the OS thus negating a known OS vulnerability.
Q10. Visible security cameras are considered to be which of the following types of security controls?
A. Technical
B. Compensating
C. Deterrent
D. Administrative
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q11. Company employees are required to have workstation client certificates to access a bank website. These certificates were backed up as a precautionary step before the new computer upgrade. After the upgrade and restoration, users state they can access the bank’s website, but not login. Which is the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. The IP addresses of the clients have change
B. The client certificate passwords have expired on the server
C. The certificates have not been installed on the workstations
D. The certificates have been installed on the CA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The computer certificates must be installed on the upgraded client computers.
Q12. Using a heuristic system to detect an anomaly in a computer’s baseline, a system administrator was able to detect an attack even though the company signature based IDS and antivirus did not detect it. Further analysis revealed that the attacker had downloaded an executable file onto the company PC from the USB port, and executed it to trigger a privilege escalation flaw.
Which of the following attacks has MOST likely occurred?
A. Cookie stealing
B. Zero-day
C. Directory traversal
D. XML injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability was unknown in that the IDS and antivirus did not detect it. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q13. The security manager wants to unify the storage of credential, phone numbers, office numbers, and address information into one system. Which of the following is a system that will support the requirement on its own?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q14. A security administrator develops a web page and limits input into the fields on the web page as well as filters special characters in output. The administrator is trying to prevent which of the following attacks?
A. Spoofing
B. XSS
C. Fuzzing
D. Pharming
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in Web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side script into Web pages viewed by other users. Cross-site scripting uses known vulnerabilities in web-based applications, their servers, or plug-in systems on which they rely. Exploiting one of these, attackers fold malicious content into the content being delivered from the compromised site. When the resulting combined content arrives at the client-side web browser, it has all been delivered from the trusted source, and thus operates under the permissions granted to that system. By finding ways of injecting malicious scripts into web pages, an attacker can gain elevated access-privileges to sensitive page content, session cookies, and a variety of other information maintained by the browser on behalf of the user.
By validating user input and preventing special characters, we can prevent the injection of client-side scripting code.
Q15. Which of the following identifies certificates that have been compromised or suspected of being compromised?
A. Certificate revocation list
B. Access control list
C. Key escrow registry
D. Certificate authority
Answer: A
Explanation:
Certificates that have been compromised or are suspected of being compromised are revoked. A CRL is a locally stored record containing revoked certificates and revoked keys.