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Q1. A security administrator wants to deploy security controls to mitigate the threat of company employees’ personal information being captured online. Which of the following would BEST serve this purpose?
A. Anti-spyware
B. Antivirus
C. Host-based firewall
D. Web content filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spyware monitors a user’s activity and uses network protocols to reports it to a third party without the user’s knowledge. This is usually accomplished using a tracking cookie.
Q2. Which of the following application security principles involves inputting random data into a program?
A. Brute force attack
B. Sniffing
C. Fuzzing
D. Buffer overflow
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks.
Q3. A security administrator must implement a system that will support and enforce the following file system access control model: FILE NAME SECURITY LABEL Employees.doc Confidential Salary.xls Confidential
OfficePhones.xls Unclassified
PersonalPhones.xls Restricted
Which of the following should the security administrator implement?
A. White and black listing
B. SCADA system
C. Trusted OS
D. Version control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q4. On Monday, all company employees report being unable to connect to the corporate wireless network, which uses 802.1x with PEAP. A technician verifies that no configuration changes were made to the wireless network and its supporting infrastructure, and that there are no outages.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this issue?
A. Too many incorrect authentication attempts have caused users to be temporarily disabled.
B. The DNS server is overwhelmed with connections and is unable to respond to queries.
C. The company IDS detected a wireless attack and disabled the wireless network.
D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that the network uses 802.1x with PEAP. The 802.1x authentication server is typically an EAP-compliant Remote Access Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). A RADIUS server will be configured with a digital certificate. When a digital certificate is created, an expiration period is configured by the Certificate Authority (CA). The expiration period is commonly one or two years. The question states that no configuration changes have been made so it’s likely that the certificate has expired.
Q5.
Which of the following would be MOST appropriate if an organization's requirements mandate complete control over the data and applications stored in the cloud?
A. Hybrid cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Private cloud
D. Public cloud
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q6. An information bank has been established to store contacts, phone numbers and other records. A UNIX application needs to connect to the index server using port 389. Which of the following authentication services should be used on this port by default?
A. RADIUS
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
LDAP makes use of port 389.
Q7. Allowing unauthorized removable devices to connect to computers increases the risk of which of the following?
A. Data leakage prevention
B. Data exfiltration
C. Data classification
D. Data deduplication
Answer: B
Explanation: Data exfiltration is the unauthorized copying, transfer or retrieval of data from a system.
Q8. Joe, a security analyst, asks each employee of an organization to sign a statement saying that they understand how their activities may be monitored. Which of the following BEST describes this statement? (Select TWO).
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Risk acceptance policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Email policy
E. Security policy
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Privacy policies define what controls are required to implement and maintain the sanctity of data privacy in the work environment. Privacy policy is a legal document that outlines how data collected is secured. It should encompass information regarding the information the company collects, privacy choices you have based on your account, potential information sharing of your data with other parties, security measures in place, and enforcement. Acceptable use policies (AUPs) describe how the employees in an organization can use company systems and resources, both software and hardware.
Q9. Joe, a user, wants to send an encrypted email to Ann. Which of the following will Ann need to use to verify that the email came from Joe and decrypt it? (Select TWO).
A. The CA’s public key
B. Ann’s public key
C. Joe’s private key
D. Ann’s private key
E. The CA’s private key
F. Joe’s public key
Answer: D,F
Explanation:
Joe wants to send a message to Ann. It’s important that this message not be altered. Joe will use the private key to create a digital signature. The message is, in effect, signed with the private key. Joe then sends the message to Ann. Ann will use the public key attached to the message to validate the digital signature. If the values match, Ann knows the message is authentic and came from Joe. Ann will use a key provided by Joe—the public key—to decrypt the message. Most digital signature implementations also use a hash to verify that the message has not been altered, intentionally or accidently, in transit. Thus Ann would compare the signature area referred to as a message in the message with the calculated value digest (her private key in this case). If the values match, the message hasn’t been tampered with and the originator is verified as the person they claim to be.
Q10. A new intern was assigned to the system engineering department, which consists of the system architect and system software developer’s teams. These two teams have separate privileges. The intern requires privileges to view the system architectural drawings and comment on some software development projects. Which of the following methods should the system administrator implement?
A. Group based privileges
B. Generic account prohibition
C. User access review
D. Credential management
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can assign permissions to access resources either to a user or a group. The most efficient way is to assign permissions to a group (group based privileges). By assigning the intern’s user account to both groups, the intern will inherit the permissions assigned to those groups.
Q11. A recent audit of a company’s identity management system shows that 30% of active accounts belong to people no longer with the firm. Which of the following should be performed to help avoid this scenario? (Select TWO).
A. Automatically disable accounts that have not been utilized for at least 10 days.
B. Utilize automated provisioning and de-provisioning processes where possible.
C. Request that employees provide a list of systems that they have access to prior to leaving the firm.
D. Perform regular user account review / revalidation process.
E. Implement a process where new account creations require management approval.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Provisioning and de-provisioning processes can occur manually or automatically. Since the manual processes are so time consuming, the automated option should be used as it is more efficient. Revalidating user accounts would determine which users are no longer active.
Q12. Which of the following wireless protocols could be vulnerable to a brute-force password attack? (Select TWO).
A. WPA2-PSK
B. WPA - EAP - TLS
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA -CCMP
E. WPA - LEAP
F. WEP
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A brute force attack is an attack that attempts to guess a password. WPA2-PSK and WEP both use a “Pre-Shared Key”. The pre-shared key is a password and therefore is susceptible to a brute force attack.
Q13. Which of the following is mainly used for remote access into the network?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most gateways that control access to the network have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS server. Therefore, it can be inferred that RADIUS is primarily used for remote access.
Q14. By default, which of the following uses TCP port 22? (Select THREE).
A. FTPS
B. STELNET
C. TLS
D. SCP
E. SSL
F. HTTPS
G. SSH
H. SFTP
Answer: D,G,H
Explanation:
G: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
D: SCP stands for Secure Copy. SCP is used to securely copy files over a network. SCP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
H: SFTP stands for stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol and is used for transferring files using FTP over a secure network connection. SFTP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
Q15. When using PGP, which of the following should the end user protect from compromise? (Select TWO).
A. Private key
B. CRL details
C. Public key
D. Key password
E. Key escrow
F. Recovery agent
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A: In PGP only the private key belonging to the receiver can decrypt the session key.
PGP combines symmetric-key encryption and public-key encryption. The message is encrypted
using a symmetric encryption algorithm, which requires a symmetric key. Each symmetric key is
used only once and is also called a session key.
D: PGP uses a passphrase to encrypt your private key on your machine. Your private key is
encrypted on your disk using a hash of your passphrase as the secret key. You use the
passphrase to decrypt and use your private key.