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Q1. An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna's directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.
Q2. Pete, the system administrator, has concerns regarding users losing their company provided smartphones. Pete’s focus is on equipment recovery. Which of the following BEST addresses his concerns?
A. Enforce device passwords.
B. Use remote sanitation.
C. Enable GPS tracking.
D. Encrypt stored data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Global Positioning System (GPS) tracking can be used to identify its location of a stolen device and can allow authorities to recover the device. However, for GPS tracking to work, the device must have an Internet connection or a wireless phone service over which to send its location information.
Q3. Which of the following services are used to support authentication services for several local devices from a central location without the use of tokens?
A. TACACS+
B. Smartcards
C. Biometrics
D. Kerberos
Answer: A
Explanation:
ACACS allows a client to accept a username and password and send a query to a TACACS authentication server. It would determine whether to accept or deny the authentication request and send a response back. The TIP would then allow access or not based upon the response, not tokens.
Q4. Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Credit card and PIN
B. Username and password
C. Password and PIN
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: A
Explanation:
A credit card is a memory card that functions a type of two-factor authentication. The card is something you have, and its PIN is something you know. Multifactor authentication requires a user to provide two or more different types of authentication factors to prove their identity.
Q5. Which of the following explains the difference between a public key and a private key?
A. The public key is only used by the client while the private key is available to all. Both keys are mathematically related.
B. The private key only decrypts the data while the public key only encrypts the data. Both keys are mathematically related.
C. The private key is commonly used in symmetric key decryption while the public key is used in asymmetric key decryption.
D. The private key is only used by the client and kept secret while the public key is available to all.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The private key must be kept secret at all time. The private key is only by the client. The public key is available to anybody.
Q6. The datacenter design team is implementing a system, which requires all servers installed in racks to face in a predetermined direction. AN infrared camera will be used to verify that servers are properly racked. Which of the following datacenter elements is being designed?
A. Hot and cold aisles
B. Humidity control
C. HVAC system
D. EMI shielding
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are often multiple rows of servers located in racks in server rooms. The rows of servers are known as aisles, and they can be cooled as hot aisles and cold aisles. With a hot aisle, hot air outlets are used to cool the equipment, whereas with cold aisles, cold air intake is used to cool the equipment. Combining the two, you have cold air intake from below the aisle and hot air outtake above it, providing constant circulation. Infrared cameras are heat detection measures thus it is hot and cold aisle design elements.
Q7. Joe, a user, reports to the system administrator that he is receiving an error stating his certificate has been revoked. Which of the following is the name of the database repository for these certificates?
A. CSR
B. OCSP
C. CA
D. CRL
Answer: D
Explanation:
A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.
Q8. Which of the following concepts allows an organization to group large numbers of servers together in order to deliver a common service?
A. Clustering
B. RAID
C. Backup Redundancy
D. Cold site
Answer: A
Explanation:
Anytime you connect multiple computers to work/act together as a single server, it is known as
clustering. Clustered systems utilize parallel processing (improving performance and availability)
and add redundancy (but also add costs).
Clustering is done whenever you connect multiple computers to work and act together as a single
server. It is meant to utilize parallel processing and can also add to redundancy.
Q9. A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q10. Encryption used by RADIUS is BEST described as:
A. Quantum
B. Elliptical curve
C. Asymmetric
D. Symmetric
Answer: D
Explanation:
The RADIUS server uses a symmetric encryption method.
Note: Symmetric algorithms require both ends of an encrypted message to have the same key and
processing algorithms. Symmetric algorithms generate a secret key that must be protected.
Q11. A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. Thus the actual switch configuration should first be subject to the change management approval.
Q12. A technician wants to implement a dual factor authentication system that will enable the organization to authorize access to sensitive systems on a need-to-know basis. Which of the following should be implemented during the authorization stage?
A. Biometrics
B. Mandatory access control
C. Single sign-on
D. Role-based access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is asking about “authorization”, not authentication.
Mandatory access control (MAC) is a form of access control commonly employed by government and military environments. MAC specifies that access is granted based on a set of rules rather than at the discretion of a user. The rules that govern MAC are hierarchical in nature and are often called sensitivity labels, security domains, or classifications.
MAC can also be deployed in private sector or corporate business environments. Such cases typically involve the following four security domain levels (in order from least sensitive to most sensitive):
Public Sensitive Private Confidential
A MAC environment works by assigning subjects a clearance level and assigning objects a sensitivity label—in other words, everything is assigned a classification marker. Subjects or users are assigned clearance levels. The name of the clearance level is the same as the name of the sensitivity label assigned to objects or resources. A person (or other subject, such as a program or a computer system) must have the same or greater assigned clearance level as the resources they wish to access. In this manner, access is granted or restricted based on the rules of classification (that is, sensitivity labels and clearance levels). MAC is named as it is because the access control it imposes on an environment is mandatory. Its assigned classifications and the resulting granting and restriction of access can’t be altered by users. Instead, the rules that define the environment and judge the assignment of sensitivity labels and clearance levels control authorization. MAC isn’t a very granularly controlled security environment. An improvement to MAC includes the use of need to know: a security restriction where some objects (resources or data) are restricted unless the subject has a need to know them. The objects that require a specific need to know are assigned a sensitivity label, but they’re compartmentalized from the rest of the objects with the same sensitivity label (in the same security domain). The need to know is a rule in and of itself, which states that access is granted only to users who have been assigned work tasks that require access to the cordoned-off object. Even if users have the proper level of clearance, without need to know, they’re denied access. Need to know is the MAC equivalent of the principle of least privilege from DAC
Q13. A company hired Joe, an accountant. The IT administrator will need to create a new account for
Joe. The company uses groups for ease of management and administration of user accounts.
Joe will need network access to all directories, folders and files within the accounting department.
Which of the following configurations will meet the requirements?
A. Create a user account and assign the user account to the accounting group.
B. Create an account with role-based access control for accounting.
C. Create a user account with password reset and notify Joe of the account creation.
D. Create two accounts: a user account and an account with full network administration rights.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Role-based Access Control is basically based on a user’s job description. When a user is assigned a specific role in an environment, that user’s access to objects is granted based on the required tasks of that role. The IT administrator should, therefore, create an account with role-based access control for accounting for Joe.
Q14. A security analyst informs the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) that a security breach has just occurred. This results in the Risk Manager and Chief Information Officer (CIO) being caught unaware when the CEO asks for further information. Which of the following strategies should be implemented to ensure the Risk Manager and CIO are not caught unaware in the future?
A. Procedure and policy management
B. Chain of custody management
C. Change management
D. Incident management
Answer: D
Explanation:
incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets). The events that could occur include security breaches.
Q15. Which of the following technical controls helps to prevent Smartphones from connecting to a corporate network?
A. Application white listing
B. Remote wiping
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Mobile device management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Mobile device management (MDM) is allows for managing the mobile devices that employees use to access company resources. MDM is intended to improve security, provide monitoring, enable remote management, and support troubleshooting. It can be used to push or remove applications, manage data, and enforce configuration settings on these devices.