SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

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CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. A company uses PGP to ensure that sensitive email is protected. Which of the following types of cryptography is being used here for the key exchange? 

A. Symmetric 

B. Session-based 

C. Hashing 

D. Asymmetric 

Answer:

Explanation: 

PGP combines symmetric-key encryption and public-key encryption. The message is encrypted using a symmetric encryption algorithm, which requires a symmetric key. Each symmetric key is used only once and is also called a session key. 

Q2. A small company wants to employ PKI. The company wants a cost effective solution that must be simple and trusted. They are considering two options: X.509 and PGP. Which of the following would be the BEST option? 

A. PGP, because it employs a web-of-trust that is the most trusted form of PKI. 

B. PGP, because it is simple to incorporate into a small environment. 

C. X.509, because it uses a hierarchical design that is the most trusted form of PKI. 

D. X.509, because it is simple to incorporate into a small environment. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q3. Which of the following is the MOST important step for preserving evidence during forensic procedures? 

A. Involve law enforcement 

B. Chain of custody 

C. Record the time of the incident 

D. Report within one hour of discovery 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. 

When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you’re open to dispute about possible evidence tampering. Thus to preserve evidence during a forensic procedure the chain of custody is of utmost importance. 

Q4. An administrator has a network subnet dedicated to a group of users. Due to concerns regarding data and network security, the administrator desires to provide network access for this group only. Which of the following would BEST address this desire? 

A. Install a proxy server between the users’ computers and the switch to filter inbound network traffic. 

B. Block commonly used ports and forward them to higher and unused port numbers. 

C. Configure the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical address. 

D. Install host-based intrusion detection software to monitor incoming DHCP Discover requests. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Configuring the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical address is known as MAC filtering. The physical address is known as the MAC address. Every network adapter has a unique MAC address hardcoded into the adapter. You can configure the ports of a switch to allow connections from computers with specific MAC addresses only and block all other MAC addresses. MAC filtering is commonly used in wireless networks but is considered insecure because a MAC address can be spoofed. However, in a wired network, it is more secure because it would be more difficult for a rogue computer to sniff a MAC address. 

Q5. Identifying a list of all approved software on a system is a step in which of the following practices? 

A. Passively testing security controls 

B. Application hardening 

C. Host software baselining 

D. Client-side targeting 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Application baseline defines the level or standard of security that will be implemented and maintained for the application. It may include requirements of hardware components, operating system versions, patch levels, installed applications and their configurations, and available ports and services. Systems can be compared to the baseline to ensure that the required level of security is being maintained. 

Q6. An administrator finds that non-production servers are being frequently compromised, production servers are rebooting at unplanned times and kernel versions are several releases behind the version with all current security fixes. 

Which of the following should the administrator implement? 

A. Snapshots 

B. Sandboxing 

C. Patch management 

D. Intrusion detection system 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Patch management is the process of maintaining the latest source code for applications and operating systems by applying the latest vendor updates. This helps protect a systems from newly discovered attacks and vulnerabilities. 

Q7. Which of the following application attacks is used against a corporate directory service where there are unknown servers on the network? 

A. Rogue access point 

B. Zero day attack 

C. Packet sniffing 

D. LDAP injection 

Answer:

Explanation: A directory service is accessed by using LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). LDAP injection is an attack against a directory service. Just as SQL injection attacks take statements that are input by users and exploit weaknesses within, an LDAP injection attack exploits weaknesses in LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) implementations. This can occur when the user’s input is not properly filtered, and the result can be executed commands, modified content, or results returned to unauthorized queries. The best way to prevent LDAP injection attacks is to filter the user input and to use a validation scheme to make certain that queries do not contain exploits. One of the most common uses of LDAP is associated with user information. Numerous applications exist—such as employee directories—where users find other users by typing in a portion of their name. These queries are looking at the cn value or other fields (those defined for department, home directory, and so on). Someone attempting LDAP injection could feed unexpected values to the query to see what results are returned. All too often, finding employee information equates to finding usernames and values about those users that could be portions of their passwords. 

Q8. Which of the following is a measure of biometrics performance which rates the ability of a system to correctly authenticate an authorized user? 

A. Failure to capture 

B. Type II 

C. Mean time to register 

D. Template capacity 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Type II, or false acceptance rate (FAR), is the measure of the likelihood that the biometric security system will incorrectly accept an access attempt by an unauthorized user. 

Q9. Employee badges are encoded with a private encryption key and specific personal information. 

The encoding is then used to provide access to the network. Which of the following describes this access control type? 

A. Smartcard 

B. Token 

C. Discretionary access control 

D. Mandatory access control 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Smart cards are credit-card-sized IDs, badges, or security passes with an embedded integrated circuit chip that can include data regarding the authorized bearer. This data can then be used for identification and/or authentication purposes. 

Q10. It is MOST important to make sure that the firewall is configured to do which of the following? 

A. Alert management of a possible intrusion. 

B. Deny all traffic and only permit by exception. 

C. Deny all traffic based on known signatures. 

D. Alert the administrator of a possible intrusion. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q11. A security administrator must implement a network that is immune to ARP spoofing attacks. Which of the following should be implemented to ensure that a malicious insider will not be able to successfully use ARP spoofing techniques? 

A. UDP 

B. IPv6 

C. IPSec 

D. VPN 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q12. Which of the following assessment techniques would a security administrator implement to ensure that systems and software are developed properly? 

A. Baseline reporting 

B. Input validation 

C. Determine attack surface 

D. Design reviews 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When implementing systems and software, an important step is the design of the systems and 

software. The systems and software should be designed to ensure that the system works as 

intended and is secure. 

The design review assessment examines the ports and protocols used, the rules, segmentation, 

and access control in the system or application. A design review is basically a check to ensure that 

the design of the system meets the security requirements. 

Q13. Which of the following should be done before resetting a user’s password due to expiration? 

A. Verify the user’s domain membership. 

B. Verify the user’s identity. 

C. Advise the user of new policies. 

D. Verify the proper group membership. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When resetting a password, users have to establish their identity by answering a series of personal questions, using a hardware authentication token, or responding to a password notification e-mail. Users can then either specify a new, unlocked password, or ask that a randomly generated one be provided. This can be done from their workstation login prompt, or through a telephone call. 

Q14. Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device? 

A. EFS 

B. TrueCrypt 

C. TPM 

D. SLE 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates. 

Q15. Which of the following controls should critical application servers implement to protect themselves from other potentially compromised application services? 

A. NIPS 

B. Content filter 

C. NIDS 

D. Host-based firewalls 

Answer:

Explanation: