SY0-401 Premium Bundle

SY0-401 Premium Bundle

CompTIA Security+ Certification Certification Exam

4.5 
(14790 ratings)
0 QuestionsPractice Tests
0 PDFPrint version
November 21, 2024Last update

CompTIA SY0-401 Free Practice Questions

Q1. A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage? 

A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption 

B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives 

C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files 

D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space. 

Q2. Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following? 

A. Password security 

B. Regular auditing 

C. Baseline management 

D. Individual accountability 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Holding users accountable for their actions is part of security, and can only be achieved by users having their own user accounts. To adequately provide accountability, the use of shared or group accounts should be discouraged. 

Q3. Due to hardware limitation, a technician must implement a wireless encryption algorithm that uses the RC4 protocol. Which of the following is a wireless encryption solution that the technician should implement while ensuring the STRONGEST level of security? 

A. WPA2-AES 

B. 802.11ac 

C. WPA-TKIP 

D. WEP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

WPA-TKIP uses the RC4 cipher. 

TKIP and the related WPA standard implement three new security features to address security problems encountered in WEP protected networks. First, TKIP implements a key mixing function that combines the secret root key with the initialization vector before passing it to the RC4 initialization. WEP, in comparison, merely concatenated the initialization vector to the root key, and passed this value to the RC4 routine. This permitted the vast majority of the RC4 based WEP 

related key attacks. Second, WPA implements a sequence counter to protect against replay 

attacks. Packets received out of order will be rejected by the access point. Finally, TKIP 

implements a 64-bit Message Integrity Check (MIC) 

To be able to run on legacy WEP hardware with minor upgrades, TKIP uses RC4 as its cipher. 

TKIP also provides a rekeying mechanism. TKIP ensures that every data packet is sent with a 

unique encryption key. 

Q4. An administrator needs to renew a certificate for a web server. Which of the following should be submitted to a CA? 

A. CSR 

B. Recovery agent 

C. Private key 

D. CRL 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In public key infrastructure (PKI) systems, a certificate signing request (also CSR or certification 

request) is a message sent from an applicant to a certificate authority in order to apply for a digital 

identity certificate. 

When you renew a certificate you send a CSR to the CA to get the certificate resigned. 

Q5. Which of the following is true about the CRL? 

A. It should be kept public 

B. It signs other keys 

C. It must be kept secret 

D. It must be encrypted 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The CRL must be public so that it can be known which keys and certificates have been revoked. In the operation of some cryptosystems, usually public key infrastructures (PKIs), a certificate revocation list (CRL) is a list of certificates (or more specifically, a list of serial numbers for certificates) that have been revoked, and therefore, entities presenting those (revoked) certificates should no longer be trusted. 

Q6. A security manager must remain aware of the security posture of each system. Which of the following supports this requirement? 

A. Training staff on security policies 

B. Establishing baseline reporting 

C. Installing anti-malware software 

D. Disabling unnecessary accounts/services 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The IT baseline protection approach is a methodology to identify and implement computer security 

measures in an organization. The aim is the achievement of an adequate and appropriate level of 

security for IT systems. This is known as a baseline. 

A baseline report compares the current status of network systems in terms of security updates, 

performance or other metrics to a predefined set of standards (the baseline). 

Q7. Ann, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a company, sees cloud computing as a way to save money while providing valuable services. She is looking for a cost-effective solution to assist in capacity planning as well as visibility into the performance of the network. Which of the following cloud technologies should she look into? 

A. IaaS 

B. MaaS 

C. SaaS 

D. PaaS 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q8. A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. Additionally the system must support 3DS wireless encryption. 

Which of the following should be implemented? 

A. WPA2-CCMP with 802.1X 

B. WPA2-PSK 

C. WPA2-CCMP 

D. WPA2-Enterprise 

Answer:

Explanation: 

D: WPA-Enterprise is also referred to as WPA-802.1X mode, and sometimes just WPA (as opposed to WPA-PSK), this is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server. This requires a more complicated setup, but provides additional security 

(e.g. protection against dictionary attacks on short passwords). Various kinds of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) are used for authentication. RADIUS can be managed centrally, and the servers that allow access to a network can verify with a RADIUS server whether an incoming caller is authorized. Thus the RADIUS server can perform all authentications. This will require users to use their passwords on their user accounts. 

Q9. A network administrator has recently updated their network devices to ensure redundancy is in place so that: 

A. switches can redistribute routes across the network. 

B. environmental monitoring can be performed. 

C. single points of failure are removed. 

D. hot and cold aisles are functioning. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Redundancy refers to systems that either are duplicated or fail over to other systems in the event of a malfunction. The best way to remove an SPOF from your environment is to add redundancy. 

Q10. Which of the following is BEST utilized to identify common misconfigurations throughout the enterprise? 

A. Vulnerability scanning 

B. Port scanning 

C. Penetration testing 

D. Black box 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates. 

A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security. 

Q11. HOTSPOT 

The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication. 

1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks. 

2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port 

3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port. 

Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit. 

Answer:  

Q12. A network administrator recently updated various network devices to ensure redundancy throughout the network. If an interface on any of the Layer 3 devices were to go down, traffic will still pass through another interface and the production environment would be unaffected. This type of configuration represents which of the following concepts? 

A. High availability 

B. Load balancing 

C. Backout contingency plan 

D. Clustering 

Answer:

Explanation: 

High availability (HA) refers to the measures used to keep services and systems operational during an outage. In short, the goal is to provide all services to all users, where they need them and when they need them. With high availability, the goal is to have key services available 99.999 percent of the time (also known as five nines availability). 

Q13. A company's Chief Information Officer realizes the company cannot continue to operate after a disaster. Which of the following describes the disaster? 

A. Risk 

B. Asset 

C. Threat 

D. Vulnerability 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Q14. Ann, the security administrator, received a report from the security technician, that an unauthorized new user account was added to the server over two weeks ago. Which of the following could have mitigated this event? 

A. Routine log audits 

B. Job rotation 

C. Risk likelihood assessment 

D. Separation of duties 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When a new user account is created, an entry is added to the Event Logs. By routinely auditing the event logs, you would know that an account has been created. 

Q15. Which of the following protocols provides transport security for virtual terminal emulation? 

A. TLS 

B. SSH 

C. SCP 

D. S/MIME 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally designed for Unix systems. It uses encryption to establish a secure connection between two systems. SSH also provides alternative, security-equivalent programs for such Unix standards as Telnet, FTP, and many other communications-oriented applications. SSH is available for use on Windows systems as well. This makes it the preferred method of security for Telnet and other cleartext oriented programs in the Unix environment.