Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Q1. Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: D
Q2. A systems administrator is reviewing the following information from a compromised server:
Given the above information, which of the following processes was MOST likely exploited via a remote buffer overflow attack?
A. Apache
B. LSASS
C. MySQL
D. TFTP
Answer: A
Q3. DRAG DROP
A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.
Answer:
Explanation:
When dealing with multiple issues, address them in order of volatility (OOV); always deal with the most volatile first. Volatility can be thought of as the amount of time that you have to collect certain data before a window of opportunity is gone. Naturally, in an investigation you want to collect everything, but some data will exist longer than others, and you cannot possibly collect all of it once. As an example, the OOV in an investigation may be RAM, hard drive data, CDs/DVDs, and printouts.
Order of volatility: Capture system images as a snapshot of what exists, look at network traffic and logs, capture any relevant video/screenshots/hashes, record time offset on the systems, talk to witnesses, and track total man-hours and expenses associated with the investigation.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p. 453
Q4. A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords. The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select two.)
A. The portal will function as a service provider and request an authentication assertion.
B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion.
C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted.
D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion.
E. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store.
F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider.
Answer: A,B
Q5. An attacker compromises a public CA and issues unauthorized X.509 certificates for Company.com. In the future, Company.com wants to mitigate the impact of similar incidents. Which of the following would assist Company.com with its goal?
A. Certificate pinning
B. Certificate stapling
C. Certificate chaining
D. Certificate with extended validation
Answer: A
Q6. A security administrator is developing controls for creating audit trails and tracking if a PHI data breach is to occur. The administrator has been given the following requirements:
Which of the following should the administrator implement to meet the above requirements? (Select three.)
A. Eliminate shared accounts.
B. Create a standard naming convention for accounts.
C. Implement usage auditing and review.
D. Enable account lockout thresholds.
E. Copy logs in real time to a secured WORM drive.
F. Implement time-of-day restrictions.
G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.
Answer: A,C,G
Q7. An incident responder receives a call from a user who reports a computer is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a malware infection. Which of the following steps should the responder perform NEXT?
A. Capture and document necessary information to assist in the response.
B. Request the user capture and provide a screenshot or recording of the symptoms.
C. Use a remote desktop client to collect and analyze the malware in real time.
D. Ask the user to back up files for later recovery.
Answer: C
Q8. Users report the following message appears when browsing to the company’s secure site: This website cannot be trusted. Which of the following actions should a security analyst take to resolve these messages? (Select two.)
A. Verify the certificate has not expired on the server.
B. Ensure the certificate has a .pfx extension on the server.
C. Update the root certificate into the client computer certificate store.
D. Install the updated private key on the web server.
E. Have users clear their browsing history and relaunch the session.
Answer: A,C
Q9. A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?
A. Botnet
B. Ransomware
C. Polymorphic malware
D. Armored virus
Answer: A
Q10. Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their customers to download over the Internet?
A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.
B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch.
C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value.
D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.
Answer: A
Q11. When connected to a secure WAP, which of the following encryption technologies is MOST
likely to be configured when connecting to WPA2-PSK?
A. DES
B. AES
C. MD5
D. WEP
Answer: B
Q12. A user suspects someone has been accessing a home network without permission by spoofing the MAC address of an authorized system. While attempting to determine if an authorized user is logged into the home network, the user reviews the wireless router, which shows the following table for systems that are currently on the home network.
Which of the following should be the NEXT step to determine if there is an unauthorized user on the network?
A. Apply MAC filtering and see if the router drops any of the systems.
B. Physically check each of the authorized systems to determine if they are logged onto the network.
C. Deny the “unknown” host because the hostname is not known and MAC filtering is not applied to this host.
D. Conduct a ping sweep of each of the authorized systems and see if an echo response is received.
Answer: C
Q13. HOTSPOT
Select the appropriate attack from each drop down list to label the corresponding illustrated attack
Instructions: Attacks may only be used once, and will disappear from drop down list if selected.
When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.
Answer:
Explanation:
1: Spear phishing is an e-mail spoofing fraud attempt that targets a specific organization, seeking unauthorized access to confidential data. As with the e-mail messages used in
regular phishing expeditions, spear phishing messages appear to come from a trusted source. Phishing messages usually appear to come from a large and well-known company or Web site with a broad membership base, such as eBay or PayPal. In the case of spear phishing, however, the apparent source of the e-mail is likely to be an individual within the recipient's own company and generally someone in a position of authority.
2: The Hoax in this question is designed to make people believe that the fake AV (anti- virus) software is genuine.
3: Vishing is the act of using the telephone in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft. The scammer usually pretends to be a legitimate business, and fools the victim into thinking he or she will profit.
4: Phishing is the act of sending an email to a user falsely claiming to be an established legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam the user into surrendering private information that will be used for identity theft.
Phishing email will direct the user to visit a website where they are asked to update personal information, such as a password, credit card, social security, or bank account numbers, that the legitimate organization already has. The website, however, is bogus and set up only to steal the information the user enters on the page.
5: Similar in nature to e-mail phishing, pharming seeks to obtain personal or private (usually financial related) information through domain spoofing. Rather than being spammed with malicious and mischievous e-mail requests for you to visit spoof Web sites which appear legitimate, pharming 'poisons' a DNS server by infusing false information into the DNS server, resulting in a user's request being redirected elsewhere. Your browser, however will show you are at the correct Web site, which makes pharming a bit more serious and more difficult to detect. Phishing attempts to scam people one at a time with an e-mail while pharming allows the scammers to target large groups of people at one time through domain spoofing.
References: http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/spear-phishing http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/V/vishing.html http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/phishing.html http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/P/pharming.html
Q14. As part of a new industry regulation, companies are required to utilize secure, standardized OS settings. A technical must ensure the OS settings are hardened. Which of the following is the BEST way to do this?
A. Use a vulnerability scanner.
B. Use a configuration compliance scanner.
C. Use a passive, in-line scanner.
D. Use a protocol analyzer.
Answer: A
Q15. DRAG DROP
You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan.
Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.
Answer:
Q16. An organization has determined it can tolerate a maximum of three hours of downtime. Which of the following has been specified?
A. RTO
B. RPO
C. MTBF
D. MTTR
Answer: A
Q17. Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?
A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit
Answer: A
Q18. Ann. An employee in the payroll department, has contacted the help desk citing multiple issues with her device, including:
Ann states the issues began after she opened an invoice that a vendor emailed to her. Upon opening the invoice, she had to click several security warnings to view it in her word processor. With which of the following is the device MOST likely infected?
A. Spyware
B. Crypto-malware
C. Rootkit
D. Backdoor
Answer: D
Q19. Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?
A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability
Answer: C
Q20. DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct protocol to its default port.
Answer:
Explanation:
FTP uses TCP port 21. Telnet uses port 23.
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file- transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
SMTP uses TCP port 25.
Port 69 is used by TFTP.
SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.
References:
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp. 42, 45, 51
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_TCP_and_UDP_port_numbers
Q21. A user clicked an email link that led to a website than infected the workstation with a virus. The virus encrypted all the network shares to which the user had access. The virus was not deleted or blocked by the company’s email filter, website filter, or antivirus. Which of the following describes what occurred?
A. The user’s account was over-privileged.
B. Improper error handling triggered a false negative in all three controls.
C. The email originated from a private email server with no malware protection.
D. The virus was a zero-day attack.
Answer: A
Q22. A security analyst is hardening a server with the directory services role installed. The analyst must ensure LDAP traffic cannot be monitored or sniffed and maintains compatibility with LDAP clients. Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Select two.)
A. Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA.
B. Install and configure an SSH tunnel on the LDAP server.
C. Ensure port 389 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
D. Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
E. Remote the LDAP directory service role from the server.
Answer: B,D
Q23. An application team is performing a load-balancing test for a critical application during off- hours and has requested access to the load balancer to review which servers are up without having the administrator on call. The security analyst is hesitant to give the application team full access due to other critical applications running on the load balancer. Which of the following is the BEST solution for security analyst to process the request?
A. Give the application team administrator access during off-hours.
B. Disable other critical applications before granting the team access.
C. Give the application team read-only access.
Answer: A
Q24. Two users need to send each other emails over unsecured channels. The system should support the principle of non-repudiation. Which of the following should be used to sign the user’s certificates?
A. RA
B. CA
C. CRL
D. CSR
Answer: B